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=>

Set \(x = \frac{1}{1^2} + \frac{1}{3^2} + \frac{1}{5^2} + …\). Then

\(\frac{π^2}{6} =\frac{1}{1^2} + \frac{1}{2^2} + \frac{1}{3^2} + \frac{1}{4^2} + …\)

\(= (\frac{1}{1^2} + \frac{1}{3^2} + \frac{1}{5^2} + … ) + (\frac{1}{2^2} + \frac{1}{4^2} + \frac{1}{6^2} + … )\)

\(= (\frac{1}{1^2} + \frac{1}{3^2} + \frac{1}{5^2} + … ) + (\frac{1}{(1*2)^2} + \frac{1}{(2*2)^2} + \frac{1}{(2*3)^2} + … )\)

\(= (\frac{1}{1^2} + \frac{1}{3^2} + \frac{1}{5^2} + … ) + (\frac{1}{4})(\frac{1}{1})^2 + \frac{1}{2^2} + \frac{1}{3^2} + … )\)

\(=x+(\frac{1}{4})(\frac{π^2}{6})\)

So, \(x= π^2/6-(1/4)(π^2/6)=(3/4)(π^2/6)=π^2/8\)

Therefore, the answer is A.
Answer: A
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Here we could use a easier method, as we know the first sequence is more than the next sequence. The value of first sequence will be more than the second sequence.

And Hence, the value should be lesser than pi/6 which is pi/8.
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Instead of lengthy calculations, this can be answered by looking at the options and using a bit of logic.

(1/1^2)+(1/3^2)+(1/5^2)+... will always be less than (1/1^2)+(1/2^2)+(1/3^2)+(1/4^2)+... = (π^2/6)

Only option A is less than π^2/6.
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This is gonna be a stupid question, but I'm genuinely not aware of why:


why is it that the sequence with the squares of all integers is always less that the sequence with the squares of odd integers?
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saynchalk
This is gonna be a stupid question, but I'm genuinely not aware of why:


why is it that the sequence with the squares of all integers is always less that the sequence with the squares of odd integers?

Because each term of the first sequence is more than (or equal to in the case of the first term) than each corresponding term of the second sequence.
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I require help with this question, can anyone explain it to me in a more breakdown manner step by step please.
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\(\frac{1}{1^2} + \frac{1}{2^2}+ \frac{1}{3^2} + \frac{1}{4^2} + ... = \frac{π^2}{6}.\) What is the value of \(\frac{1}{1^2}+ \frac{1}{3^2} + \frac{1}{5^2} + ... ?\)

\(A. \frac{π^2}{8}\)
\(B. \frac{π^2}{2}\)
\(C. π^2\)
\(D. 2π^2\)
\(E. 4π^2\)

I require help with this question, can anyone explain it to me in a more breakdown manner step by step please.

Given:

\(\frac{1}{1^2} + \frac{1}{2^2}+ \frac{1}{3^2} + \frac{1}{4^2} + ... = \frac{π^2}{6}\)

Now group the odd-placed terms and even-placed terms:

\((\frac{1}{1^2}+ \frac{1}{3^2} + \frac{1}{5^2} + ...)+(\frac{1}{2^2} + \frac{1}{4^2}+ \frac{1}{6^2} + \frac{1}{8^2} + ...) = \frac{π^2}{6}\)

Now factor out 1/2^2 from each term in the even-placed group:

\((\frac{1}{1^2}+ \frac{1}{3^2} + \frac{1}{5^2} + ...)+(\frac{1}{2^2}*(\frac{1}{1^2} + \frac{1}{2^2}+ \frac{1}{3^2} + \frac{1}{4^2} + ...)) = \frac{π^2}{6}\)

Substitute the sum in the second parenthesis with π^2/6, thus we get:

\((\frac{1}{1^2}+ \frac{1}{3^2} + \frac{1}{5^2} + ...)+(\frac{1}{2^2}*( \frac{π^2}{6})) = \frac{π^2}{6}\)

\((\frac{1}{1^2}+ \frac{1}{3^2} + \frac{1}{5^2} + ...)= \frac{π^2}{6}- \frac{1}{2^2}* \frac{π^2}{6} \)

\((\frac{1}{1^2}+ \frac{1}{3^2} + \frac{1}{5^2} + ...)= \frac{π^2}{8}\)

Answer: A.
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