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Bunuel
For how many prime numbers p, is p^2 + 3p - 1 a prime number?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4



Solution



    • The expression \(p^2 + 3p – 1\) is given as summation of 3 terms, we will try to re-express it as product so that identifying the prime nature will be easier.
    • On looking at the given expression we can observe that we can easily manipulate it in an expression containing \((p+1)^2\)
    • Adding as well as subtracting 1 from the expression, we get:
      o \(p^2 + 3p – 1 = p^2 + 2p +1 + p -1-1 = (p+1)^2 + p-2 \)
    • On further adding and subtracting 1 in the above expression, we get,
      o \((p+1)^2 + p-2 = (p+1)^2 + p+1 -2-1 = (p+1)^2 +(p+1)-3 = (p+1)(p+2) -3\)
         \(p, p+1\) and \(p+2\) are consecutive integers.
    • We know that 1 out of every three consecutive integers must be a multiple of 3.
      o If \(p+1\) or \(p+2\) are multiple of 3 then we can take 3 common out of \((p+1)(p+2) -3\) and it won’t be a prime.
      o Thus, \((p+1)(p+2) -3\) will be prime only if p is a multiple of 3.
         As p is a prime only such possibility is \(p= 3\).
Thus, the correct answer is Option B.

Alternate Solution,


    • As p is a prime it can be either 2 ,3 or it can be represented as 6n+1 or 6n -1, where n is positive integer. So, there will be following four cases:
      o Case 1: If \( p = 6n + 1\)
         \(p^2 + 3p – 1 = (6n+1)^2 + 3*(6n+1) – 1 = 36n^2+ 12n + 1 + 3*(6n+1) -1 = 3*(12n^2 + 10n + 1)\), it is divisible by 3 hence, this can’t be a prime.
      o Case 2: If \(p = 6n – 1\)
         \(p^2 + 3p – 1 = (6n-1)^2 + 3*(6n-1) – 1 = 36n^2- 12n + 1 + 3*(6n-1) -1 = 3*(12n^2 + 2n - 1)\), it is also divisible by 3 hence, this can’t be a prime.
      o Case 3: If \(p = 2\)
         \(p^2 + 3p – 1 = (2)^2 + 3*(2) – 1 = 9\), which is not a prime.
      o Case 4: If \(p = 3\)
         \(p^2 + 3p – 1 = (3)^2 + 3*(3) – 1 = 17\), which is a prime.
Hence, only for \(p = 3\) the given expression is a prime.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B.
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