When I first looked at this question, the first thing that struck me was that
4096 and 64 are both powers of 2. I also knew that
4096 is the square of 64 / 64 is the square root of 4096.
Sometimes, knowing some such numbers by memory will not only cut down the time taken to solve a problem but can also lead you towards the right approach to solve the problem.
Knowing that 4096 is a square of 64 helps us understand that if we make the base as 64 on the both sides of the equation, we can then equate the powers.
Having said that, it is not a mandate that you have to memorise the squares of all numbers from 1 to 100 if you are preparing for the GMAT. If you can memorise squares till 40, you can use that as a springboard to find out squares of bigger numbers.
For example, if you knew that \(32^2\) = 1024, it’s not hard to figure out that \(64^2\) = 4*\(32^2\) (NO, it is not 2*\(32^2\), remember if x = 2y, \(x^2\)=4*\(y^2\)).
An alternative set of numbers that can help you solve this question is your knowledge of powers of 2. If you know that 4096 = \(2^{12}\) and 64 = \(2^6\), its not hard to figure out that 64 is the square root of 4096.
Also note that \(\frac{1}{x^n}\) = \(x^{-n}\) and \(1^n\) = 1.
\((\frac{1}{64})^x\) = \(\frac{1}{64^x}\) = \(64^{-x}\).
4096 = \(64^2\).
Since (\(\frac{1}{64^x}\)) = 4096, we have \(64^{-x}\) = \(64^2\).
Since the bases are same, the exponents also have to be equal.
Therefore,
-x = 2 or
x=-2.
The correct answer option is D.
Hope that helps!