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nislam
If n is an even positive integer, and n > 10, then (n + 2)! + (n + 1)! +n! must be divisible by

I) n^2
II) (n + 1)^2
III) (n + 2)^2

A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I and III only
E) I, II and III


Let us simplify \((n+2)!+(n+1)!+n!\)
\((n+2)(n+1)n!+(n+1)n!+n!=n!((n+2)(n+1)+(n+1)+1)=n!((n+2)(n+1)+(n+2))=n!(n+2)(n+1+1)=n!(n+2)^2\)

Clearly I and III are correct.

Let us check for (n+1)^2
\(n!(n+2)^2.\)
Say n+1 is prime. For example n=12
So 12!\(*14^2\) does not have prime number 13. Hence, II need not be true.

D
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(n + 2)! + (n + 1)! +n!
= n! x (n+2)^2

I) n^2
Since 'n' is an even number and greater than 12 we can safely say that n/2 is also an integer. Hence if we take n as 12 we would also have 6 in 12!. Additionally we would also have 2 in 12!. Hence, we can safely assume that any n^2 would divide the expression

II) (n + 1)^2
By above logic n+1 would be an odd number. To have another n+1! in the factorial we would necessarily require two factors that when multiplied would give n+1, for e.g. 15 is given by 5 and 3. But this cannot be the case for prime numbers and we would never have the second odd number to ensure that (n+1)^2 divides the expression

III) (n + 2)^2
Same logic as n!. This should be able to divide the expression.

Option D
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*remember this is a MUST be condition, not a COULD be condition.

Simple expand the question stem:
(n+2)! + (n+1)! + n!

Take n! common from all of these:
n! * [ n+1*n+2 + n+1 + 1 ]
n! * [ n^2 + 4n +4 ]
n! * [ n+2]^2

This is obviously divisible by option III

Lets check other options:
n^2: n! is divisible by n. (Remember that n is even - that means n can be rewritten as n=2k, where k is less than n. And is within the n!)
SO, N! is divisible by n^2 also.


(n+1)^2
(2k+1)^2 would not be a factor of either n! or n+2
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