Correct me if my approach is incorrect but I believe the reason why it is not 3 * 1/5 is because the question asks for "leave the track with money in his pocket" which means that he can either win money from one race, two races, or three races; however, we have no way of knowing
which race he will win money from nor will we know how many races he will win in total.
Therefore, we should find out the probability of Jim not winning
any races at all. The odds of that will be: 4/5 * 4/5 * 4/5 which is 64/125. If we do 1 - 64/125, this will give us the probability of him winning
something out of the three races (including the odds where he wins a single race, two races, or three races - which will all result in him pocketing money.
Bunuel please let me know if I missed anything in my explanation. Thank you.
Schachfreizeit
Bunuel
Jim goes to the track with $150 in his pocket. His favorite horse, Major, is running three races against four other horses. Each competing horse has an equal chance of winning and Jim bets in all three races, $50 per race. What is the probability of Jim leaving the track with money in his pocket?
(A) 1/125
(B) 1/5
(C) 61/125
(D) 64/125
(E) 4/5
why is 3*1/5 not correct?
in each race, the probability of winning is 1/5