Nikkz99
Regor60
If you call the probability of having 50 or more heads X, then 1-X must be the probability of 49 or fewer heads.
But 49 or fewer heads is the same thing as 50 or more tails.
And if you believe 50 or more tails is just as likely as 50 or more heads then you can say that:
1-X=X and therefore X=1/2
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Could you please explain even bit further?
Bunuel Krunaal KarishmaB?!
Thank You!
Let us consider an example with smaller numbers and try to understand, suppose we have 3 unbiased coins and we want to find the probability of getting atleast 2 Heads.
Total cases: \(2^3 = 8\) (since each coin is unbiased and can be either H or T)
Atleast 2 H: HHT, HTH, THH, HHH => 4 ways
Probability = \(\frac{4}{8} = \frac{1}{2}\) .......................(i)
Now what if they had asked us probability of 2 Tails? which can also be said as probability of getting less than 2 Heads
Atleast 2 T: TTH, THT, HTT, TTT => 4 ways
Probability = \(\frac{4}{8} = \frac{1}{2}\) ........................(ii)
Did you notice? Probability of getting atleast 2 H = Probability of getting atleast 2 T = Probability of getting less than 2 H
Probability of getting atleast 2 H + Probability of getting atleast 2 T = 1 ........................from (i) and (ii)
Hence probability of getting atleast 2 H is \(\frac{1}{2}\)
While i don't have the conceptual knowledge of in which all cases this symmetry would follow (an expert reply might help with that), but i took smaller odd number of tosses to scale up the logic
Regor60 followed.