Last visit was: 24 Apr 2026, 17:52 It is currently 24 Apr 2026, 17:52
Close
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Close
Request Expert Reply
Confirm Cancel
User avatar
GMATMadeeasy
Joined: 25 Dec 2009
Last visit: 17 Nov 2011
Posts: 65
Own Kudos:
1,915
 [6]
Given Kudos: 3
Posts: 65
Kudos: 1,915
 [6]
Kudos
Add Kudos
6
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
mrblack
Joined: 27 Apr 2008
Last visit: 06 May 2013
Posts: 135
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 1
Posts: 135
Kudos: 235
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
Bunuel
User avatar
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Last visit: 24 Apr 2026
Posts: 109,818
Own Kudos:
811,081
 [2]
Given Kudos: 105,873
Products:
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 109,818
Kudos: 811,081
 [2]
2
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
mrblack
Joined: 27 Apr 2008
Last visit: 06 May 2013
Posts: 135
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 1
Posts: 135
Kudos: 235
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Why would order matter? For the denominator you just want the # of combinations of getting 2 cards.
User avatar
Bunuel
User avatar
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Last visit: 24 Apr 2026
Posts: 109,818
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 105,873
Products:
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 109,818
Kudos: 811,081
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
mrblack
Why would order matter? For the denominator you just want the # of combinations of getting 2 cards.

You are counting the # of selections of TWO cards in denominator in ALL four cases, but in nominator you are counting # of selections of first card and the second card separately, in all cases but the first. So you got correct answers in the first example and wrong in all other examples.

Consider this:
There are four marbles in the jar: white, black, red and blue. Two marbles are drawn from it. Find the probability that first marble is white and second is red:

Now, according to your solution it would be 1C1*1C1/4C2=1/6, which is not correct.

Correct answer is: as order matters, we need sequence WR only: 1/4*1/3=1/12.

If it were: find the probability of one marble being white and another red, then both WR and RW would be winning scenarios: P=1/4*1/3+1/4*1/3=1/6.
User avatar
mojorising800
Joined: 11 Dec 2009
Last visit: 05 Mar 2012
Posts: 111
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 7
Status:Its Wow or Never
Location: India
Concentration: Technology, Strategy
GMAT 1: 670 Q47 V35
GMAT 2: 710 Q48 V40
WE:Information Technology (Computer Software)
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Bunuel
mrblack
Why would order matter? For the denominator you just want the # of combinations of getting 2 cards.

You are counting the # of selections of TWO cards in denominator in ALL four cases, but in nominator you are counting # of selections of first card and the second card separately, in all cases but the first. So you got correct answers in the first example and wrong in all other examples.

Consider this:
There are four marbles in the jar: white, black, red and blue. Two marbles are drawn from it. Find the probability that first marble is white and second is red:

Now, according to your solution it would be 1C1*1C1/4C2=1/6, which is not correct.

Correct answer is: as order matters, we need sequence WR only: 1/4*1/3=1/12.

If it were: find the probability of one marble being white and another red, then both WR and RW would be winning scenarios: P=1/4*1/3+1/4*1/3=1/6.


i completely agree with the above example but plz consider below for the question:

the question asks for combinations like 1J,5K or 8Q or for that matter 1st card be a non face card and the 2nd be a face card
hence solution would be: P(Non face card in the 1st draw) * P(face card in the 2nd draw)
={C(40,1)/C(52,1)} * {C(12,1)/C(51,1)}


is it the above case or do we also have to consider the case in which the 1st card is also a face card and 2nd card is also a face card.?
User avatar
Bunuel
User avatar
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Last visit: 24 Apr 2026
Posts: 109,818
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 105,873
Products:
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 109,818
Kudos: 811,081
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
mojorising800

i completely agree with the above example but plz consider below for the question:

the question asks for combinations like 1J,5K or 8Q or for that matter 1st card be a non face card and the 2nd be a face card
hence solution would be: P(Non face card in the 1st draw) * P(face card in the 2nd draw)
={C(40,1)/C(52,1)} * {C(12,1)/C(51,1)}


is it the above case or do we also have to consider the case in which the 1st card is also a face card and 2nd card is also a face card.?

I'm not sure I understood your question... Anyway:

Question is: find the probability second card is face card.

In our original question (#4) we are asked to determine the probability that the second drawn card is face card, it means that second card must be face card, but the first card may or may not be face card.

This can occur in two ways (winning scenarios):
First drawn is face card*Second drawn is face card+First drawn is not face card*Second drawn is face card=F/F+NF/F=12/52*11/51+40/52*12/51. Both F/F and NF/F are winning scenarios for us, as in both cases there is face card as second card.


If it were: find the probability first card is non-face card and second is face card, then only way it can occur is NF/F: NF/F=40/52*12/51 (exactly as you wrote). No need to add to this probability F/F, as it's not a winning scenario for us.

Hope it's clear. Tell me if I answered not the question you were interested in and I'll try to elaborate more.
User avatar
mojorising800
Joined: 11 Dec 2009
Last visit: 05 Mar 2012
Posts: 111
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 7
Status:Its Wow or Never
Location: India
Concentration: Technology, Strategy
GMAT 1: 670 Q47 V35
GMAT 2: 710 Q48 V40
WE:Information Technology (Computer Software)
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Bunuel
mojorising800

i completely agree with the above example but plz consider below for the question:

the question asks for combinations like 1J,5K or 8Q or for that matter 1st card be a non face card and the 2nd be a face card
hence solution would be: P(Non face card in the 1st draw) * P(face card in the 2nd draw)
={C(40,1)/C(52,1)} * {C(12,1)/C(51,1)}


is it the above case or do we also have to consider the case in which the 1st card is also a face card and 2nd card is also a face card.?

I'm not sure I understood your question... Anyway:

Question is: find the probability second card is face card.

In our original question (#4) we are asked to determine the probability that the second drawn card is face card, it means that second card must be face card, but the first card may or may not be face card.

This can occur in two ways (winning scenarios):
First drawn is face card*Second drawn is face card+First drawn is not face card*Second drawn is face card=F/F+NF/F=12/52*11/51+40/52*12/51. Both F/F and NF/F are winning scenarios for us, as in both cases there is face card as second card.


If it were: find the probability first card is non-face card and second is face card, then only way it can occur is NF/F: NF/F=40/52*12/51 (exactly as you wrote). No need to add to this probability F/F, as it's not a winning scenario for us.

Hope it's clear. Tell me if I answered not the question you were interested in and I'll try to elaborate more.


yep!!that was my question exactly!!
whether winning scenarios were NF/F only or NF/F+F/F..
doubt cleard!!
User avatar
mrblack
Joined: 27 Apr 2008
Last visit: 06 May 2013
Posts: 135
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 1
Posts: 135
Kudos: 235
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Bunuel

You are counting the # of selections of TWO cards in denominator in ALL four cases, but in nominator you are counting # of selections of first card and the second card separately, in all cases but the first. So you got correct answers in the first example and wrong in all other examples.

Consider this:
There are four marbles in the jar: white, black, red and blue. Two marbles are drawn from it. Find the probability that first marble is white and second is red:

Now, according to your solution it would be 1C1*1C1/4C2=1/6, which is not correct.

Correct answer is: as order matters, we need sequence WR only: 1/4*1/3=1/12.

If it were: find the probability of one marble being white and another red, then both WR and RW would be winning scenarios: P=1/4*1/3+1/4*1/3=1/6.

Thanks for the explanation Bunuel.
User avatar
bumpbot
User avatar
Non-Human User
Joined: 09 Sep 2013
Last visit: 04 Jan 2021
Posts: 38,975
Own Kudos:
Posts: 38,975
Kudos: 1,117
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Automated notice from GMAT Club BumpBot:

A member just gave Kudos to this thread, showing it’s still useful. I’ve bumped it to the top so more people can benefit. Feel free to add your own questions or solutions.

This post was generated automatically.
Moderators:
Math Expert
109818 posts
Tuck School Moderator
853 posts