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If a fair sided die is rolled 3 times, what are the odds that neither a 2 or a 4 will show up on any roll?
1. 16/27
2. 8/27
3. 4/27
4. 2/27
5. 1/27
What does the term Odd mean here. If the question asks what is the probability that neither 2 or 4 will show up then I'm pretty sure the answer is 8/27.
But does odd mean -ve or oppose to .. Please explain?
Thanks -H
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IN such type of Q .. i take a contra approach.. As Q is asking neither a 2 or a 4 will show up on any roll Therefore i take the probability of either 2 or a 4 will show up on any roll = 2 /6 = 1 /3
Therefore Probability of neither a 2 or a 4 will show up on any roll = 1 - 1/3 = 2/3 As it is rolled 3 times : So probability = 2/3 * 2/3 * 2/3 = 8/27
If a fair sided die is rolled 3 times, what are the odds that neither a 2 or a 4 will show up on any roll?
1. 16/27
2. 8/27
3. 4/27
4. 2/27
5. 1/27
What does the term Odd mean here. If the question asks what is the probability that neither 2 or 4 will show up then I'm pretty sure the answer is 8/27.
But does odd mean -ve or oppose to .. Please explain?
Thanks -H
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First of all odds and probability are not the same thing. If the probability of a certain event is \(p\), then the odds (odds in favor) of this event are \(\frac{p}{1-p}\). GMAT always asks about probability and not odds, so don't worry about this.
Now the probability that during 3 rolls neither 2 nor 4 will occur: \((\frac{2}{3})^3=\frac{8}{27}\).
Odds in favor of this even would be \(\frac{p}{1-p}=\frac{8}{19}\) (8 to 19).
As \(\frac{8}{19}\) is not in answer choices, then I believe question means probability instead of odds.
Not a good question.
ssgomz
help needed in understanding the concept
why is 1-((1/3)*(1/3)*(1/3)) wrong?
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I guess you wanted to calculate the opposite probability and subtract it from 1. But \((\frac{1}{3})^3\) is the probability that on all 3 rolls we'll get either 2 or 4, which is not the opposite of getting neither 2 nor 4 during 3 rolls.
The opposite probability of getting neither 2 nor 4 during 3 rolls is the sum of the following probabilities: getting 2 or 4 once during 3 rolls, twice during 3 rolls, or all three times during 3 roll (that was the one you calculated).
Probability of getting 2 or 4 once during 3 rolls is: \(3*\frac{1}{3}*\frac{2}{3}*\frac{2}{3}=\frac{12}{27}\), we are multiplying by 3 as we can get 2 or 4 on first, on second or on third roll; Probability of getting 2 or 4 twice during 3 rolls is: \(3*\frac{1}{3}*\frac{1}{3}*\frac{2}{3}=\frac{6}{27}\), we are multiplying by 3 as this scenario also can occur in 3 ways: 2 or 4 on first and second, on first and third, or on second and third rolls; Probability of getting 2 or 4 all three times during 3 roll is: \(\frac{1}{3}*\frac{1}{3}*\frac{1}{3}=\frac{1}{27}\).
The opposite probability is the sum of above 3 probabilities: \(P(opposite \ event)=\frac{12}{27}+\frac{6}{27}+\frac{1}{27}=\frac{19}{27}\).