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Statement 2 in this question doesn't make sense. A triangle doesn't have *one* base and one height; it has *three* sides you could choose as a base, and three heights each corresponding to a base. So it makes no sense to say 'the height of triangle A is equal to the height of triangle B'; triangles have more than one height.

One could just as easily interpret the statement "Triangle A and Triangle B have bases of equal length" to mean that all three of the bases of Triangle A are equal in length to a base of Triangle B, and that the two triangles thus have sides of equal length, making the two triangles congruent. That would make Statement 2 sufficient alone.

It's a terribly worded question in any case; where is it from?

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