Mo2men
But I really could not come up with numbers to prove insufficient. All what we know that z> 1/2.
I think you're right.
Given: x – y – z < 0 Target question: Is z > 1(1) x - y > 1 - zFrom statement 1 (and the given inequality), we learn that z > 1/2. So, we might (incorrectly) conclude that it could be the case that z = 1 or z = 2, in which case, we get different answers to the target question.
HOWEVER, if we try to come up with values for x, y and z that demonstrate this, we find that we have a problem.
If z =
1, then we can plug this value into our two inequalities.
For the statement 1 inequality, we get x - y > 1 -
1Simplify to get:
x - y > 0For the given inequality, we get x – y –
1 < 0
Simplify to get:
x - y < 1When we combine the two
inequalities, we get:
0 < x - y < 1In other words, the difference between x and y is a fractional value BETWEEN 0 and 1.
This is IMPOSSIBLE, since it's given that x and y are integers.
So,
it cannot be the case that z = 1Since we already know that z > 1/2, we can conclude that it's possible that z = 2, z = 3, z = 4, etc.
For example, consider these situations:
Case a: x = 0, y = 0 and z = 2. In this case,
z IS greater than 1Case b: x = 0, y = 0 and z = 3. In this case,
z IS greater than 1Case c: x = 0, y = 0 and z = 4. In this case,
z IS greater than 1Case d: x = 0, y = 0 and z = 5. In this case,
z IS greater than 1etc..
So, it turns out that
the correct answer is actually D (both statements are sufficient)
Sorry for not knowing the correct answer when I first posted the question. It's even harder than I first imagined!!
Cheers,
Brent