Bunuel
Are x and y both negative numbers?
(1) 3x - 3y = 1
(2) x/y < 1
Statement 1 tells us \(x > y\) by \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Insufficient, as \(x\) and \(y\) could be any sign.
Statement 2 tells us \(\frac{x}{y}\) is less than one. Again just the same info in statement 1 \((x>y)\), except not as exact. Insufficient.
Now let's step back and consider both equations together. One or both variables have to be negative given both statements. Since we have 2 different cases with the same result, then neither statement is sufficient.
Hence E.
While there are infinite numerical examples, \(-1\) and \(\frac{-2}{3}\) or \(\frac{1}{6}and \frac{-1}{6}\) are prime examples.
CASE 1 \((\frac{-2}{3}, -1)\)
\(\frac{-2}{3} - (-1)\) = \(\frac{1}{3}\)... (1)
\(\frac{2}{3}\) is absolutely less than \(1\).... (2)
CASE 2 \((\frac{1}{6}, \frac{-1}{6})\)
\(\frac{1}{6} - (\frac{-1}{6})\) = \(\frac{1}{3}\)... (1)
\(\frac{x}{y} = -1\) \(<1\)... (2)
Since both variables could negative or one could, then the answer is E.
Note that I wrongly assumed that the one negative and positive coordinates (case 2) won't make a difference and the answer should be C. However, amanvamagmat below called my attention to this error in his post.
Best,