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11 Jul 2019, 05:02
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Be sure to select an answer first to save it in the Error Log before revealing the correct answer (OA)!
Difficulty:
35%
(medium)
Question Stats:
63% (00:52) correct
37%
(01:16)
wrong
based on 30
sessions
History
Date
Time
Result
Not Attempted Yet
An integer greater than 1 is prime if it is divisible only by itself and 1. Is \(n\) prime?
(1) \(n\) is between 1 and 4.
(2) \(n^2 − 5n + 6 = 0\)
Source: Nova GMAT
(1) \(n\) is between 1 and 4.
(2) \(n^2 − 5n + 6 = 0\)
Source: Nova GMAT
This Question is Locked Due to Poor Quality
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WiziusCareers1
Joined: 27 Apr 2009
Last visit: 24 Apr 2026
Posts: 178
Given Kudos: 35
Status:Not Applying
Location: India
Schools: HBS '14 (A)
GMAT 1: 730 Q51 V36
Updated on: 11 Jul 2019, 08:24
Originally posted by WiziusCareers1 on 11 Jul 2019, 06:29.
Last edited by WiziusCareers1 on 11 Jul 2019, 08:24, edited 1 time in total.
Last edited by WiziusCareers1 on 11 Jul 2019, 08:24, edited 1 time in total.
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Considering statement (1) alone:
As n not supposed to be an integer, n may or may not be prime.
INSUFFICIENT
Considering statement (2) alone:
n = 2 or 3
SUFFICIENT
The answer is (B).
As n not supposed to be an integer, n may or may not be prime.
INSUFFICIENT
Considering statement (2) alone:
n = 2 or 3
SUFFICIENT
The answer is (B).
11 Jul 2019, 06:55
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IMO B. 'n' might be 2.5 or 3.5. It is not mentioned in the question that 'n' is integer. The 'integer' mentioned in the question is the property of a prime number.
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