Bunuel
If \(a ≠ 0\), \(\frac{x}{y}\) = \(\frac{-1}{a}\), and \(\frac{y}{z}\) = \(\frac{b}{3}\), is \(\frac{x}{z}\) > \(\frac{1}{2}\)?
(1) \(a^2 - 2a − 3 = 0\)
(2) \(b^2 - 4b + 4 = 1\)
\(\frac{x}{y}\) = \(\frac{-1}{a}\) and \(\frac{y}{z}\) = \(\frac{b}{3}\)
But we are looking for \(\frac{x}{z}\), so multiply the above equations
\(\frac{x}{y}\)*\(\frac{y}{z}\) = \(\frac{-1}{a}\)* \(\frac{b}{3}.............\frac{x}{z}=\frac{-b}{3a}\)
The question becomes: Is \(\frac{-b}{3a}>\frac{1}{2}..........\frac{b}{a}<-\frac{3}{2}\)
When we look at statements individually, they give values of a and b separately, so surely none is sufficient individually.If you are aware of change of signs in equations, statement I tells you that we will get two values of a with opposite signs. SO, you can mark E and move ahead.
But let us solve it.
(1) \(a^2 - 2a − 3 = 0........a^2-3a+a-3=(a-3)(a+1)=0\)
Two values of a: 3 and -1
Nothing about b?
But two values with opposite sign of a should give you E as the answer.
(2) \(b^2 - 4b + 4 = 1..........(b-3)(b-1)=0\)
Two values of b: 3 and 1
Nothing about a?
Combined
If b=3 and a=3.......\(\frac{b}{a}<-\frac{3}{2}\) ............ \(\frac{3}{3}<-\frac{3}{2}\)...No
If b=3 and a=-1.......\(\frac{b}{a}<-\frac{3}{2}\) ............. \(\frac{3}{-1}<-\frac{3}{2}\)...Yes
Insufficient