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Bunuel
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Might be a longer way, but I just found the probabilities of each of the 4 scenarios:


1st: P(Red 1st and then Red 2nd) + P(Black 1st and then Black 2nd) = P(S)

P(Red on 1st draw) = 1,001 / 2,002 = 1/2

and then

P(Red after drawing Red on 1st draw) = 1,000 / 2,001

= (1/2) * (1,000 / 2,001)

since we have the same number of Red as we do Black, the P(Black and then Black) will be the same, so we just double the above:

(2) * (1/2) * (1,000 / 2,001) =

1,000 / 2,0001 = P(S)


2nd: P(drawing Red 1st and then Black 2nd) + P(drawing Black 1st and then Red 2nd) = P(D)

Probability of drawing Red 1st = (1,001 / 2,002) = (1/2)
and
Probability of drawing Black given Red has been drawn = (1,001 / 2,001)

= (1/2) * (1,001 / 2,001)

P(drawing Black 1st and then Red 2nd) will be the SAME so we can just double the above like before and we get:

(2) (1/2) (1,001 / 2,001) =

1,001 / 2,001 = P(D)


Absolute Value of the Difference of: P(S) - P(D) =

(1,001 / 2,001) - (1,000 / 2,001) =


1/2,0001
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Hmm, what does the probability of Pdifferent - Psame define?

If I understand it correctly, drawing 2 marbles would mean that they are either both red/black or 1 is a different color than the other.

so what would the leftover 1/2001 mean?
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Ps:

Number of ways to draw 2 balls of same color:

2*(1001!/2*999!)= 1001*1000

Number of ways to draw 2 balls of any color:

2002!/2*2000!= 1001*2001

Probability Ps= (1001*1000/(1001*2001/=

1000/2001

Pd:

Ways to draw a red ball is the same as ways to draw a black ball, 1001,so

1001*1001 ways to draw 2 balls of a different color.

Number of ways to draw 2 balls of any color

1001*2001 from above

Probability Pd= 1001*1001/(1001*2001)=

1001/2001

So Ps-Pd = 1000/2001 - 1001/2001=

1/2001

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