manishgeorge
Fluke, could you explain ?
Frankly, I have memorized the formula and when/where to apply that. How does it give the exact count; for that you'd have to use a small set rather than these astronomical numbers.
Let's just flip the coin 4 times and get exactly one head.
\(C^4_1*\frac{1}{2^1}*\frac{1}{2^3}=\frac{4}{16}=\frac{1}{4}\)
TTTT
TTTHTTHTTTHH
THTTTHTH
THHT
THHH
HTTTHTTH
HTHT
HTHH
HHTT
HHTH
HHHT
HHHH
You see; only 4 of these have exactly 1 head.
Let's see the components:
\(Probability(Head)=\frac{1}{2}\)
\(Probability(Not-Head/Tail)=1-\frac{1}{2}=\frac{1}{2}\)
Number of times we expect the head to appear exactly: n
Total trials : t
So,
\(Ways=C^t_n*Probability(Head)^n*Probability(Not-Head)^{(t-n)}\)
In the original question:
\(n=8\)
\(t=16\)
\(Ways=C^{16}_8*Probability(Head)^8*Probability(Not-Head)^{(16-8)}\)
A better place to learn about Binomial Distribution is walker's tutorial on Probability:
https://gmatclub.com/forum/math-probability-87244.htmlTopic: "Combination of independent and mutually exclusive events"
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