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bharu130
Joined: 19 Jun 2016
Last visit: 28 Feb 2024
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Location: India
Concentration: Strategy
Schools: ISB '19 (S) NTU '19 (S) Fisher '21 (I)
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02 Nov 2016, 02:04
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Hi Guys,
I came across this in GmatPrepNow video tutorials for SVA-2 :
"Homer told Marge that he ate all of the cake."
I wanted to know whether the usage of the word 'he' amounts to a case of pronoun ambiguity or not.
Thanks!!
I came across this in GmatPrepNow video tutorials for SVA-2 :
"Homer told Marge that he ate all of the cake."
I wanted to know whether the usage of the word 'he' amounts to a case of pronoun ambiguity or not.
Thanks!!
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This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
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02 Nov 2016, 04:07
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Hi, technically speaking, this would be a case of pronoun ambiguity, because he has two eligible antecedents: Homer and Marge.
In such cases, the general practice is to split the sentence in terms of the two clauses:
i) Homer told Marge
ii) he ate all of the cake.
Hence, it can be presumed that he (the pronoun-subject of the clause) refers to Homer (the noun-subject of the previous clause). To summarize, a pronoun-subject of a clause can be presumed to refer to noun-subject of the previous clause.
Having said that, there are staggering violations of this in few officially correct questions. Hence, pronoun ambiguity should not be a reason to eliminate any answer choice.
By the way, the above sentence would not really be the best way of articulation, from a tense perspective. The ideal sentence would be:
Homer told Marge that he had eaten all of the cake.
p.s. Our book EducationAisle Sentence Correction Nirvana discusses pronoun ambiguity, its application and examples in significant detail. If someone is interested, PM me your email-id; I can mail the corresponding section.
In such cases, the general practice is to split the sentence in terms of the two clauses:
i) Homer told Marge
ii) he ate all of the cake.
Hence, it can be presumed that he (the pronoun-subject of the clause) refers to Homer (the noun-subject of the previous clause). To summarize, a pronoun-subject of a clause can be presumed to refer to noun-subject of the previous clause.
Having said that, there are staggering violations of this in few officially correct questions. Hence, pronoun ambiguity should not be a reason to eliminate any answer choice.
By the way, the above sentence would not really be the best way of articulation, from a tense perspective. The ideal sentence would be:
Homer told Marge that he had eaten all of the cake.
p.s. Our book EducationAisle Sentence Correction Nirvana discusses pronoun ambiguity, its application and examples in significant detail. If someone is interested, PM me your email-id; I can mail the corresponding section.
Archived Topic
Hi there,
This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
Where to now? Join ongoing discussions on thousands of quality questions in our Verbal Questions Forum
Still interested in this question? Check out the "Best Topics" block above for a better discussion on this exact question, as well as several more related questions.
Thank you for understanding, and happy exploring!
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