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15 Dec 2016, 13:48
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Is "He eats." a complete sentence even though he does not have an antecedent and eats does not have an object?
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16 Dec 2016, 12:07
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Some verbs need objects, while other verbs don't.
'Eats' is okay with or without an object.
'Yawns' never has an object.
'Squeezes' always has an object.
This isn't the kind of thing the GMAT worries about, though!
Pronouns almost always need an antecedent on the GMAT (but in normal speech, we use pronouns without antecedents all the time.) The only exception I know of is the 'hollow it', which is used in sentences like this:
It's likely that the plan will fail.
This sentence is grammatical, even though there's no antecedent for 'it' (no noun that you could replace 'it' with and have the sentence make sense).
'Eats' is okay with or without an object.
'Yawns' never has an object.
'Squeezes' always has an object.
This isn't the kind of thing the GMAT worries about, though!
Pronouns almost always need an antecedent on the GMAT (but in normal speech, we use pronouns without antecedents all the time.) The only exception I know of is the 'hollow it', which is used in sentences like this:
It's likely that the plan will fail.
This sentence is grammatical, even though there's no antecedent for 'it' (no noun that you could replace 'it' with and have the sentence make sense).
Archived Topic
Hi there,
This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
Where to now? Join ongoing discussions on thousands of quality questions in our Verbal Questions Forum
Still interested in this question? Check out the "Best Topics" block above for a better discussion on this exact question, as well as several more related questions.
Thank you for understanding, and happy exploring!
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