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15 Apr 2007, 21:02
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I stuck with one GMAT questions from OG10. If someone can verify the grammar rule below for me, I will understand that GMAT question clearly.
Sentence #1: The blue dress looks more flattering on you than the red one does.
Sentence #1 is clearly correct. However, what if I change the position of the verb "does" at the end?
Sentence #2: The blue dress looks more flattering on you than does the red one.
Can I switch the helping verb to the front of the subject?
Either answer is yes or no, could you explain the structure rule for me? I tried to find the rule on Google but had no luck.
Sentence #1: The blue dress looks more flattering on you than the red one does.
Sentence #1 is clearly correct. However, what if I change the position of the verb "does" at the end?
Sentence #2: The blue dress looks more flattering on you than does the red one.
Can I switch the helping verb to the front of the subject?
Either answer is yes or no, could you explain the structure rule for me? I tried to find the rule on Google but had no luck.
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Hi there,
This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
Where to now? Join ongoing discussions on thousands of quality questions in our Verbal Questions Forum
Still interested in this question? Check out the "Best Topics" block below for a better discussion on this exact question, as well as several more related questions.
Thank you for understanding, and happy exploring!
21 Apr 2007, 10:15
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devilmirror
I cant tell u the rule why 2nd is wrong but the first one fits well with the parallelism.
X looks more Y than Z does.
