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I know that modifiers are supposed to touch the noun the modify, and when they don't it is a "misplaced modifier"
One exception to the rule is for adverbial modifiers (modifiers that describe verbs) --> they don't have to directly touch the word/phrase they modify
However I have seen an instance on a GMAT question where the sentence opens with a modifier, and the word at the end of that modifier is modified (seperated by commas) and then the word the initial modifying phrase modifies the second phrase. I rejected it on the basis of the fact that modifiers are directly supposed to touch their noun they modify, but that choice turned out to be the correct answer.
Can someone please clear this up for me and/or tell me the other general rules/exceptions that i need to watch out for will kudos!
I cannot remember the actual sentence that was correct, if i find it in my error log later I will post, but for now here is an very basic example i just made up to illustrate the point:
Having driven to the store, which is bigger than any other store in the area, Tom walked up and down every single aisle.
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there r 4 exceptions given in the Manhattan SC 4th edition in advance modifier section
Also, your construction of the example is wrong because it is nat making any sense to me. Sentence starting with present participle modifiers technically modifies verb but they need noun to make sense. .....According to Manhattan SC
e.g. Using the latest scale, which is the most comprehensive, the scientist completed the research.
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