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I understand that the question is very vague and we are not given any information either, but I will try my best to explain.

1: The cases of robbery often involve violence and, thus, are often also counted in the cases of assault.
The motive here might be to explain the high number of assaults. If we take this reasoning to be true, it must be the case that assault cases are more than robbery cause if that were not the case, the statement would not explain anything.
We see that the number of assaults is always more than robberies, meaning that the assaults already include the court of robberies. Therefore, this does help explain something.

2: The crime investigation specialists suggest that the criminals involved in burglary are also often involved in motor vehicle theft
The motive here might be also to account for high vehicle theft, but since there is not clear relation there. We are talking here about the criminal and their behaviour, not the crime itself.
The key difference between this and statement 1 is that in 1, we are accounting for crimes; here, we are accounting for the criminals, which is too much to assume.
Hence, this does not prove anything or help establish anything.

3. property crime rates are more common in rich cities where the government's emphasis on maintaining overall calm is higher
This statement, too, tries to defend the high crime rates in these cities. But the problem is although we know the population, robberies and arsons in the cities, we have no information about their net worth. Hence, this, too, would not be sufficient to establish any relation or help explain anything.

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