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Bismuth83
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Yes that's true, however the question can still be answered without the exact value.

Let me know if you don't see how!
Aarjav112004
There is no ireland in the second table
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...And that is why the question is made, since Ireland is not in the table for women, it means women of Ireland are "more fit" or in other words take care of their diets than their male counterparts in Ireland!
Aarjav112004
There is no ireland in the second table
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" The lists are ranking the highest obesity rates"
I'm sorry but that's not mentioned anywhere in the tabs. Irish women may have 0% or 100% obesity (not true in real life xd) rates.

Bismuth83
1. The question asks us to figure out whether the following statements can be explained using the data.

2. Men and women in Lebanon are more likely to share similar exercise habits than are men and women in the United States. In Lebanon, the absolute difference is |36.3% - 38.3%| = |-2%| = 2%. In the US, the absolute difference is |27.7% - 34.0%| = 6.3%. Since 2% < 6.3%, men and women in Lebanon have similar obesity rates and therefore could support them having similar exercise habits. So, this statement would be explained by the data.

3. Women in Ireland are more careful with their diet than are their male counterparts. The obesity rate for men in Ireland is 20.1%, while women are not on the list. The lists are ranking the highest obesity rates, which means women in Ireland have an obesity rate less than 18%. Since that value is definitely less than 20.1%, women have a lower obesity rate and therefore could support them being more careful with their diet. So, this statement would be explained by the data.

4. Men in Germany take less of an interest in fitness than do women in Germany. The obesity rates for men and women in Germany are 22.5% and 23.3%, respectively. Since 22.5% < 23.3%, men have a lower obesity rate and therefore could counter the idea that they have less of an interest in fitness. So, this statement would not be explained by the data.
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What is meant by 'would be explained by data'? If i can see there is nowhere talked about the dietary habits and exercise habits then how can we say whether they are in line with data or not? Also sometime i see we use inference to support the answer and sometimes we use exact values tell me in which case to use which of the following.
Bismuth83
1. The question asks us to figure out whether the following statements can be explained using the data.

2. Men and women in Lebanon are more likely to share similar exercise habits than are men and women in the United States. In Lebanon, the absolute difference is |36.3% - 38.3%| = |-2%| = 2%. In the US, the absolute difference is |27.7% - 34.0%| = 6.3%. Since 2% < 6.3%, men and women in Lebanon have similar obesity rates and therefore could support them having similar exercise habits. So, this statement would be explained by the data.

3. Women in Ireland are more careful with their diet than are their male counterparts. The obesity rate for men in Ireland is 20.1%, while women are not on the list. The lists are ranking the highest obesity rates, which means women in Ireland have an obesity rate less than 18%. Since that value is definitely less than 20.1%, women have a lower obesity rate and therefore could support them being more careful with their diet. So, this statement would be explained by the data.

4. Men in Germany take less of an interest in fitness than do women in Germany. The obesity rates for men and women in Germany are 22.5% and 23.3%, respectively. Since 22.5% < 23.3%, men have a lower obesity rate and therefore could counter the idea that they have less of an interest in fitness. So, this statement would not be explained by the data.
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Pranavsawant
" The lists are ranking the highest obesity rates"
I'm sorry but that's not mentioned anywhere in the tabs. Irish women may have 0% or 100% obesity (not true in real life xd) rates.



The table title clearly says “Highest obesity rates,” so it is ranked from the top down. Ireland appears on the men’s list at 20.1% but does not appear on the women’s list, which goes down to 18%. That means women in Ireland must be below 18%. So yes, women’s rate is lower than men’s. Whether the ~2% gap is enough to explain that women are more careful with their diet is another question, but the data at least partially support the claim.
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What is meant by 'would be explained by data'? If i can see there is nowhere talked about the dietary habits and exercise habits then how can we say whether they are in line with data or not? Also sometime i see we use inference to support the answer and sometimes we use exact values tell me in which case to use which of the following.


“Would be explained by the data” means: the setup gives us tables of obesity rates and then some behavioral statements. We don’t have direct info about diet or exercise habits, but the question is asking whether the numbers at least partially support the claims. If the data are consistent with or lend some support to the statement, we mark it as “would explain.” If the data are nowhere near supporting the statement, then it’s “would not explain.” That’s why the first and second statements are at least partially supported by the tables, while the third (about men in Germany taking less interest in fitness) is not, since men’s rate there is actually lower than women’s.
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The rates in the question are defined as percentage of total population. It is a possibility that there are only 36.3% men in Lebanon and all of them are Obsese. How does this confirm that they share a similar exercise habits than are men ann women.
Bismuth83
1. The question asks us to figure out whether the following statements can be explained using the data.

2. Men and women in Lebanon are more likely to share similar exercise habits than are men and women in the United States. In Lebanon, the absolute difference is |36.3% - 38.3%| = |-2%| = 2%. In the US, the absolute difference is |27.7% - 34.0%| = 6.3%. Since 2% < 6.3%, men and women in Lebanon have similar obesity rates and therefore could support them having similar exercise habits. So, this statement would be explained by the data.

3. Women in Ireland are more careful with their diet than are their male counterparts. The obesity rate for men in Ireland is 20.1%, while women are not on the list. The lists are ranking the highest obesity rates, which means women in Ireland have an obesity rate less than 18%. Since that value is definitely less than 20.1%, women have a lower obesity rate and therefore could support them being more careful with their diet. So, this statement would be explained by the data.

4. Men in Germany take less of an interest in fitness than do women in Germany. The obesity rates for men and women in Germany are 22.5% and 23.3%, respectively. Since 22.5% < 23.3%, men have a lower obesity rate and therefore could counter the idea that they have less of an interest in fitness. So, this statement would not be explained by the data.
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How can we compare the obesity as a % of the total population between men and women unless we are told that the total men and total women are 50:50 in that country?

For ex., in the 1st question, say Lebanese women constitute only 40% of the total population, then (38.3 out of 40) 96% of Lebanese women are obese. Now the data can't suggest that men and women share similar exercise habits, right?

In the same sense, none of the given statements can suggest anything about the data unless we assume that the gender ratio of the total population is 50:50.

Please explain.

Thanks in advance!
Bismuth83
1. The question asks us to figure out whether the following statements can be explained using the data.

2. Men and women in Lebanon are more likely to share similar exercise habits than are men and women in the United States. In Lebanon, the absolute difference is |36.3% - 38.3%| = |-2%| = 2%. In the US, the absolute difference is |27.7% - 34.0%| = 6.3%. Since 2% < 6.3%, men and women in Lebanon have similar obesity rates and therefore could support them having similar exercise habits. So, this statement would be explained by the data.

3. Women in Ireland are more careful with their diet than are their male counterparts. The obesity rate for men in Ireland is 20.1%, while women are not on the list. The lists are ranking the highest obesity rates, which means women in Ireland have an obesity rate less than 18%. Since that value is definitely less than 20.1%, women have a lower obesity rate and therefore could support them being more careful with their diet. So, this statement would be explained by the data.

4. Men in Germany take less of an interest in fitness than do women in Germany. The obesity rates for men and women in Germany are 22.5% and 23.3%, respectively. Since 22.5% < 23.3%, men have a lower obesity rate and therefore could counter the idea that they have less of an interest in fitness. So, this statement would not be explained by the data.
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dictanobis
How can we compare the obesity as a % of the total population between men and women unless we are told that the total men and total women are 50:50 in that country?

For ex., in the 1st question, say Lebanese women constitute only 40% of the total population, then (38.3 out of 40) 96% of Lebanese women are obese. Now the data can't suggest that men and women share similar exercise habits, right?

In the same sense, none of the given statements can suggest anything about the data unless we assume that the gender ratio of the total population is 50:50.

Please explain.

Thanks in advance!

The first table shows the percentages of obesity among men and the second among women, so the ratio of men to women in the population doesn’t matter. However, the wording of the question is ambiguous, so I am archiving it.

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