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24 Apr 2023, 10:30
Kudos
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B
Be sure to select an answer first to save it in the Error Log before revealing the correct answer (OA)!
Difficulty:
35%
(medium)
Question Stats:
61% (00:48) correct
39%
(00:43)
wrong
based on 36
sessions
History
Date
Time
Result
Not Attempted Yet
Is p/m > 0 ?
(1) p > m
(2) pm > 0
(1) p > m
(2) pm > 0
Pure algebraic questions like this one are no longer part of the GMAT Data Sufficiency syllabus.
For relevant Data Sufficiency questions, please check the Data Sufficiency forum:
Data Sufficiency Forum
Data Sufficiency Forum
Updated on: 24 Apr 2023, 13:07
Originally posted by Archit3110 on 24 Apr 2023, 10:58.
Last edited by Archit3110 on 24 Apr 2023, 13:07, edited 1 time in total.
Last edited by Archit3110 on 24 Apr 2023, 13:07, edited 1 time in total.
Kudos
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Bunuel
target is p/m>0
possible only when both p,m are +ve and p>m or else if both are -ve
#1
p>m
yes if both are +ve
and no if -ve m or both are -ve and p>m
insufficient
#2
pm>0
sufficient as given in target statement when both p,m are +ve or else if both are -ve
Sufficient
Option b
24 Apr 2023, 12:45
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Archit3110
Statement 2 says both are positive or negative.
so p/m would be always >0
When both are -ve ,
p=-2 m=-4
p/m = -2/-4 = 1/2 >0
