Bunuel
Is \(x^3y^2z<0\) ?
(1) \(x^2y<0\)
(2) \(yz<0\)
\(y^2\) is non-negative, hence we can reframe the question as \(x^3*z<0\)
This can happen when x and z share opposite positive-negative signs.
Statement 1(1) \(x^2y<0\)\(x^2\) is non-negative, hence y is negative.
However, we do not know the positive-negative nature of x and z. The statement alone is not sufficient, we can eliminate A and D.
Statement 2(2) \(yz<0\)y and z share opposite positive-negative nature. However, we do not know anything about the positive-negative nature of x. Hence, the statement alone is not sufficient. We can eliminate B.
CombinedFrom the two statements combined, we can infer that y is negative and z is positive. However, we still don't know whether x is negative. Hence, the statements combined don't help us determine the positive-negative nature of x and z.
Option E