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Originally posted by bfman on 06 Jul 2010, 19:48.
Last edited by bfman on 06 Jul 2010, 20:50, edited 1 time in total.
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I have taken the GMATPrep a few times, and I am trying to work on my quant so I skip thru the verbal section, but I have noticed something a little odd which scares me.
Last time I got a quant score of 41 and Verbal 6 (but I randomly clicked answers) and received a 480. Second time I got a quant score of 41 again and verbal again of 6 but received a 380.
Anyone know why?? I thought the overall score was based on individual scores. Why is there a variation and such a big one too??
And based on all of these tables, it is in the middle .... I would would not worry too much about this unless you are of course planning to get a v6 on the real test.... gmat-score-guide-to-gmat-scores-score-reports-83890.html
I looked at the table, but should the variation be of 100 points?? Isn't that a lot? I would be ok if it were 20-30 points.
I have difficulty understanding why is there such a huge difference on the exact same score.
I am gauging myself to get a 600. With Q-40+ and V-35+ I am expecting to get close to, if not 600. But this is throwing me off now. I wonder how this algorithm works.
Originally posted by YourDreamTheater on 06 Jul 2010, 21:01.
Last edited by YourDreamTheater on 06 Jul 2010, 22:35, edited 1 time in total.
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bfman
I looked at the table, but should the variation be of 100 points?? Isn't that a lot? I would be ok if it were 20-30 points.
I have difficulty understanding why is there such a huge difference on the exact same score.
I am gauging myself to get a 600. With Q-40+ and V-35+ I am expecting to get close to, if not 600. But this is throwing me off now. I wonder how this algorithm works.
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The huge variance won't occur when you get into more realistic scores. The same quant and verbal scores will result in an 800-scaled score with a range of 10 at the most.