bkpolymers1617
A shopkeeper purchased two TV sets A and B at the same price. If he sold the sets A and B at price P and Q respectively, such that |P-Q| = 20% of P, on which TV set did he make a greater profit?
(1) Set A was sold at no discount, while set B was sold at a discount of 25 percent
(2) The shopkeeper made a profit of 25 percent on set A
Dear
bkpolymers1617,
I'm happy to respond.
My friend, this is an extremely poorly written question. The prompt is solid and even intriguing.
Statement #2 is quite obviously insufficient by itself: that's a very easy statement.
What is bizarre about the question is ambiguity around the word "
discount" in statement #1. Discount from what?? Typically, if something was original offered at one price, and now is offered at p% less, we would call that a discount. Similarly, if the price is at one level, and then an employee or something with a coupon is able to buy the product for p% less than the list price, we would call that a discount. This is a word that is well-defined in certain context, and what is extremely confusing is it is not well-defined here. It's unclear whether the person writing the question had a particular discount in mind or whether the author is intentionally using this ambiguity to produce an answer of (E).
This does NOT have the feel of a GMAT Quant question at all. The GMAT does not use well-defined words in confusing ways to produce ambiguity. GMAT Quant questions are logically clean, and there's something suspect about the use of terminology in this question.
Here's a high quality GMAT DS practice question:
Quadrant from SignsDoes this make sense?
Mike