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Hi anknown123,

Great question, and it's the exact thing that tripped up a few others in the thread. The key is the little phrase "8 years afterward to be, for the first time, $0." That word $0 is the whole clue.

Here's the difference between the two readings:

Constant amount (what the question means): the value drops by the same number of dollars every year - say $100 per year. Start at $800 and you get 700, 600, 500, ... , 100, and then exactly 0 at year 8. It lands right on zero.

Constant percentage: the value drops by the same fraction every year - say 10%. Start at $800 and you get 720, 648, 583.2, ... The number keeps shrinking but never actually reaches 0. It just gets closer and closer forever.

So the question is telling you the value does hit exactly $0 at a specific year. A percentage decrease can never do that. The only way to reach a clean $0 at year 8 is a fixed dollar drop each year - a constant amount. That's how you infer it, straight from the stem, without needing any depreciation background.

Quick test to feel it: take $100 and cut it by 10% each year:

- Year 1: 90
- Year 2: 81
- Year 3: 72.9
- ... keeps going, never 0

Now cut it by a fixed $20 each year: 100, 80, 60, 40, 20, 0. Reaches zero on schedule.

Once you read "constant rate" as a constant dollar amount, the rest falls out: the value line is straight, and the numbers 500 (year 3) and 200 (year 6) fit a $100-per-year drop that ends at $0 in year 8.

Answer: Column 1 (X) = 500; Column 2 (Y) = 200

anknown123
How can we infer here it is constant amount and not constant rate ?

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