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# According to some sports historians, professional tennis players devel

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Intern
Joined: 06 May 2013
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GMAT 1: 700 Q49 V36
According to some sports historians, professional tennis players devel  [#permalink]

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06 Dec 2013, 09:39
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Difficulty:

65% (hard)

Question Stats:

58% (02:04) correct 42% (02:23) wrong based on 534 sessions

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According to some sports historians, professional tennis players develop unique playing styles that result from a combination of the peculiarities of each player's physical attributes and the influence of coaches during their early adaptation to the game. But when the increase in strength and endurance of modem players is discounted, it becomes readily apparent that the playing styles of the current crop of professional tennis players are no different from the styles of players from previous generations. Clearly, there is a universally efficient tennis style to which all professional tennis players conform.

The argument above is most weakened by which of the following statements?

(A) The differences in physical attributes among tennis players are even more pronounced than the sports historians believe.

(B) Few current professional tennis players are familiar with the professional tennis players of fifty years ago.

(C) The increased strength of current tennis players contributes more to the development of individual playing styles than does increased endurance.

(D) All of the early coaches of today's professional tennis players were professional tennis players themselves earlier in their lives.

(E) Weight training and greater attention to diet are the primary factors in the increased strength and stamina of the current generation of professional tennis players.

I have struggled to figure out how the explanation in kaplan 800 says that 'there is no difference between the styles of the two generations" is a fact. I only conceive of the statement as an opinion of the author that is based on another statement, i.e. "when the increase in strength and endurance of modem players is discounted". Since I still consider the "no difference" an opinion, I have thought that it has a flaw. Although it does not take into account to the influence of coaches, it concludes there is no difference. Keeping the flaw in mind, I cannot find the OA correct.

Please explain what is the signal that indicates that the statement "no difference..." is a fact, not an opinion.
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Re: According to some sports historians, professional tennis players devel  [#permalink]

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06 Dec 2013, 10:56
4
phammanhhiep wrote:
According to some sports historians, professional tennis players develop unique playing styles that result from a combination of the peculiarities of each player's physical attributes and the influence of coaches during their early adaptation to the game. But when the increase in strength and endurance of modem players is discounted, it becomes readily apparent that the playing styles of the current crop of professional tennis players are no different from the styles of players from previous generations. Clearly, there is a universally efficient tennis style to which all professional tennis players conform.

The argument above is most weakened by which of the following statements?
(A) The differences in physical attributes among tennis players are even more pronounced than the sports historians believe.
(B) Few current professional tennis players are familiar with the professional tennis players of fifty years ago.
(C) The increased strength of current tennis players contributes more to the development of individual playing styles than does increased endurance.
(D) All of the early coaches of today's professional tennis players were professional tennis players themselves earlier in their lives.
(E) Weight training and greater attention to diet are the primary factors in the increased strength and stamina of the current generation of professional tennis players.
---
OA:

I have struggled to figure out how the explanation in kaplan 800 says that 'there is no difference between the styles of the two generations" is a fact. I only conceive of the statement as an opinion of the author that is based on another statement, i.e. "when the increase in strength and endurance of modem players is discounted". Since I still consider the "no difference" an opinion, I have thought that it has a flaw. Although it does not take into account to the influence of coaches, it concludes there is no difference. Keeping the flaw in mind, I cannot find the OA correct.

Please explain what is the signal that indicates that the statement "no difference..." is a fact, not an opinion.

Dear phammanhhiep,
I'm happy to respond.

To tell you the truth, I don't think this is the very best question for a few reasons.

In statistical analyses, statisticians are able to control for one variable and, holding that constant, figure out the relationship between two other variables. This is easy to do with any one of a number of statistical software packages. Having said that, I am less than clear on exactly how this would work here. Playing style presumably is not something one could easily quantify, so then we would have to regard it as a value judgment, a mere opinion, as you say. In that cases, "controlling" for physical attributes, i.e. discounting "the increase in strength and endurance of modem players", would also be the work of human judgment and opinion, an inexact science. I think the argument is trying to create something reminiscent of the exact statistical procedure, and we are left with something far more murky. That's one huge problem with this question.

The logic for their OA is very simple ----- players today play with the same style as was used long ago, but not because it's simply the best style for tennis; instead, players today play this way, because this is what they learned from their coaches, who themselves were tennis players back in the day. The similarity is due to the teacher-student influence, not anything about the inherent value of the playing style itself. I find this hokey simple logic that ignores the other difficulties of the question.

I find (A) also a very credible answer --- if the difference in physical attributes are more pronounced, then the sports historians wouldn't properly discount them in their analysis, and they would make a big deal in the evaluation of how similar the styles now are to the styles in previous years.

Overall, I don't think it's the best question. Here's a high quality question:
http://gmat.magoosh.com/questions/3418

Let me know if you have any further questions.
Mike
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Re: According to some sports historians, professional tennis players devel  [#permalink]

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05 Mar 2014, 23:04
When I read the arguement I kept in mind these things.
> professional tennis players style depend on his physical attribute + influence of the coach in their ealry days
> if physical attributes are removed, styles of new player and old players are similar (and of course that the new players had more stamina and strength but we ignore it as said by author)
> Hence, there is a universal style

Now this argument is really long so I took few seconds and just thought that GMAT will either trick me with saying something about physical aspects or by something which is not relevant

(A) The differences in physical attributes among tennis players are even more pronounced than the sports historians believe. <<< Thought about all three points above and concluded that its not relevant as physical aspects are too be ignored

(B) Few current professional tennis players are familiar with the professional tennis players of fifty years ago. <<< Thought about all three points above, looked like a good answer but the presence of few raised a doubt.Plus, they are familiar with old players, no where its written the style so that too is a problem

(C) The increased strength of current tennis players contributes more to the development of individual playing styles than does increased endurance.<<< At this point I don't have to "think" about the three points, I remember them. Negated this as again as we are not arguing about strength vs. endurance

(D) All of the early coaches of today's professional tennis players were professional tennis players themselves earlier in their lives. <<< If you look at above premise there are two things on which a players style depend 1. physical 2. coach. This addresses the second one / Correct

(E) Weight training and greater attention to diet are the primary factors in the increased strength and stamina of the current generation of professional tennis players. <<< Again Ignored. As aspected GMAT was trying to trick with stamina/physical aspect
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Re: According to some sports historians, professional tennis players devel  [#permalink]

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18 Apr 2014, 13:20
Agree with Mr. Mike, I actually thought that (A) was the correct answer choice but after reviewing D sounds like a valid answer choice

Bottom-Line: Question's tough; Do not focus on this for study material

Cheers
J
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Joined: 06 May 2012
Posts: 1
Re: According to some sports historians, professional tennis players devel  [#permalink]

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03 Aug 2014, 07:23
For me, D.

The argument above is most weakened by which of the following statements?
(A) The differences in physical attributes among tennis players are even more pronounced than the sports historians believe. --> Attractive, but maybe not weaken. The more pronounced attributes MAY contend that some players' styles are difference, or it proves that there are more universal styles.

(D) All of the early coaches of today's professional tennis players were professional tennis players themselves earlier in their lives. --> Absolutely weaken, if ALL players conform with the universal style (coach and attribute), the early coaches cannot be pro by themselves. Thus, weaken.

Any comment if wrong.
.
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Re: According to some sports historians, professional tennis players devel  [#permalink]

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07 Sep 2016, 01:01
1
conclusion says- "there is a universally efficient tennis style to which all professional tennis players conform."
to weaken this we have to show that there is nothing like universal style ->> players get affected by their coach who themselves were player..so they share similar tennis playing style because of their coaches influence
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Re: According to some sports historians, professional tennis players devel  [#permalink]

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12 Sep 2016, 23:54
DaenerysStormborn wrote:
conclusion says- "there is a universally efficient tennis style to which all professional tennis players conform."
to weaken this we have to show that there is nothing like universal style ->> players get affected by their coach who themselves were player..so they share similar tennis playing style because of their coaches influence

Is it too far fetched to assume that as per Option D, (i.e. All of the early coaches of today's professional tennis players were professional tennis players themselves earlier in their lives) these coaches taught the players styles which they themselves learnt, since it is mentioned in the argument premise that coaches influence the player style.

So doesnt this option kind of strengthen the argument assuming that these current coaches were influenced earlier by their coaches earlier?
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Re: According to some sports historians, professional tennis players devel  [#permalink]

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13 Sep 2016, 15:58
5achin wrote:
Is it too far fetched to assume that as per Option D, (i.e. All of the early coaches of today's professional tennis players were professional tennis players themselves earlier in their lives) these coaches taught the players styles which they themselves learnt, since it is mentioned in the argument premise that coaches influence the player style.

So doesnt this option kind of strengthen the argument assuming that these current coaches were influenced earlier by their coaches earlier?

Dear 5achin,
I'm happy to respond. As I mentioned above, I don't think this is a particularly high quality question. I think it has several flaws. Nevertheless, the logic of the conclusion is very straightforward.

Big Question: Why is one playing style so common?
That's the implicit question that the argument is trying to answer.
Reason #1: it's the best, the "universally efficient tennis style"
That's the argument's answer. Everyone uses it because it's the best.
Choice (D) suggests a completely different answer to the question.
Reason #2: everyone copies from everyone else--i.e. this generation copied from their coaches, who copied from theirs, etc.
In other words, it's not necessarily the best, it's just the one that has been most passed down from coach to player over the successive generations, perhaps because it is most teachable or easily imitated or something of this sort. If this is true, then we can explain everything without assuming that this style is the best. That weakens the argument.

Does this make sense?
Mike
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Re: According to some sports historians, professional tennis players devel  [#permalink]

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13 Sep 2016, 23:02
mikemcgarry wrote:
5achin wrote:
Is it too far fetched to assume that as per Option D, (i.e. All of the early coaches of today's professional tennis players were professional tennis players themselves earlier in their lives) these coaches taught the players styles which they themselves learnt, since it is mentioned in the argument premise that coaches influence the player style.

So doesnt this option kind of strengthen the argument assuming that these current coaches were influenced earlier by their coaches earlier?

Dear 5achin,
I'm happy to respond. As I mentioned above, I don't think this is a particularly high quality question. I think it has several flaws. Nevertheless, the logic of the conclusion is very straightforward.

Big Question: Why is one playing style so common?
That's the implicit question that the argument is trying to answer.
Reason #1: it's the best, the "universally efficient tennis style"
That's the argument's answer. Everyone uses it because it's the best.
Choice (D) suggests a completely different answer to the question.
Reason #2: everyone copies from everyone else--i.e. this generation copied from their coaches, who copied from theirs, etc.
In other words, it's not necessarily the best, it's just the one that has been most passed down from coach to player over the successive generations, perhaps because it is most teachable or easily imitated or something of this sort. If this is true, then we can explain everything without assuming that this style is the best. That weakens the argument.

Does this make sense?
Mike

Ok it does make now. I was assuming that since all coaches were players they teach the most efficient style.. Never thought of the style taught need not be efficient but just easy to teach or imitate.
Thanks Mike!
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Re: According to some sports historians, professional tennis players devel  [#permalink]

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01 Aug 2018, 01:17
phammanhhiep wrote:
According to some sports historians, professional tennis players develop unique playing styles that result from a combination of the peculiarities of each player's physical attributes and the influence of coaches during their early adaptation to the game. But when the increase in strength and endurance of modem players is discounted, it becomes readily apparent that the playing styles of the current crop of professional tennis players are no different from the styles of players from previous generations. Clearly, there is a universally efficient tennis style to which all professional tennis players conform.

The argument above is most weakened by which of the following statements?

(A) The differences in physical attributes among tennis players are even more pronounced than the sports historians believe.

(B) Few current professional tennis players are familiar with the professional tennis players of fifty years ago.

(C) The increased strength of current tennis players contributes more to the development of individual playing styles than does increased endurance.

(D) All of the early coaches of today's professional tennis players were professional tennis players themselves earlier in their lives.

(E) Weight training and greater attention to diet are the primary factors in the increased strength and stamina of the current generation of professional tennis players.

I have struggled to figure out how the explanation in kaplan 800 says that 'there is no difference between the styles of the two generations" is a fact. I only conceive of the statement as an opinion of the author that is based on another statement, i.e. "when the increase in strength and endurance of modem players is discounted". Since I still consider the "no difference" an opinion, I have thought that it has a flaw. Although it does not take into account to the influence of coaches, it concludes there is no difference. Keeping the flaw in mind, I cannot find the OA correct.

Please explain what is the signal that indicates that the statement "no difference..." is a fact, not an opinion.

KAPLAN OFFICIAL EXPLANATION:

The author begins by describing the view of some sports historians, who subscribe to a basic formula: physical attributes + a coach's influence = a player's "unique" tennis style. After dismissing the relevance of modern players' greater strength and endurance, however, the author argues that current styles are really no different from previous styles, implying that the historians' claim of the existence of "unique" tennis styles is bogus. And this implication is stated outright in the last sentence, where the author posits the existence of a universally successful tennis style shared by all professionals. In other words, the author uses the fact that tennis styles haven't changed over the years to argue that there's simply one best way to play tennis; in contrast to the historians' theory of "unique," the author proposes the theory of "universality." But the author ignores a plausible alternative explanation; namely, the role of the tennis coach. If, as (D) has it, the early coaches of today's players were the professionals of yesteryear, then it's reasonable to believe that the style the author considers "universal" may simply be the style (one possible one among many) that was handed down from one generation to the next. Perhaps if the current crop of tennis stars don't go on to teach the next generation, whole new styles will develop. If the current style is learned, then it may not be universally inherent to the game. If (D) is true, the author's claim of "universality" is weakened. That makes (D) the winner.

(A) emphasizes the truth of the first part of the sports historians' view regarding the individuality of physical attributes. Since the author doesn't explicitly disagree that players vary in terms of some attributes, this choice doesn't weaken the argument.

(B) if anything, strengthens the argument: If most current players don't know of the players of previous generations, yet their styles are for the most part similar to that of those players, then we'd be more likely to believe that the author is on to something with the claim that a universally efficient style exists in the world of professional tennis.

(C) makes an irrelevant distinction between strength and endurance. Saying that one has a greater impact than the other has no effect on the argument, which never even begins to rank those two factors.

(E) The factors that contribute to the greater strength and weight of today's players are beyond the scope of this argument. The argument focuses on the similarity of styles that is evident once these factors are discounted. Why the current players are stronger and heartier than the previous bunch is not the issue.
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Re: According to some sports historians, professional tennis players devel &nbs [#permalink] 01 Aug 2018, 01:17
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# According to some sports historians, professional tennis players devel

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