Because there is no formal agreement does not necessarily mean that sc

OFFICIAL EXPLANATION



THE PROMPT

• Meaning?
The sentence, parsed:
(1) No formal agreement [about air service] exists.
(2) But that absence does not necessarily mean that scheduled air service will cease.

(1 & 2): The absence of a formal agreement does not mean that air service will cease.

Now we check the option for meaning and logic.
We know that the absence of an agreement is the subject of this sentence that matches the verb does not necessarily mean [something bad].

THE OPTIONS

• "because there is": GMAT mostly avoids expletive there constructions
• because there is no agreement cannot be the subject of the verb
-- in fact, because there is no formal agreement sounds like a subordinate clause, not a subject
Eliminate A
• insofar means "to the extent or degree that" or "as much as."
• Insofar is an adverb.
As much as there is no formal agreement? Huh?
The fact that there is no formal agreement is the logical tie to the verb.
• Insofar as there is no formal agreement cannot act as a proper subject for the verb does not mean
Eliminate B


• GMAT mostly avoids expletive there constructions
• There being no formal agreement is not a subject that can agree with the verb does not mean
• being is rarely correct and in any case, this option is not as good option E
Eliminate C

• Lacking is an adjective in the form of a participle (a verbING)
• this option sounds better than the first three, but lacking cannot describe the agreement except to say that the agreement itself is deficient in some way.
• "lacking any agreement" is not a subject that can agree with the verb.
Eliminate D

• Bingo. The lack of agreement is a proper subject that follows the logic of the sentence.
That lack (absence) does not mean that the two countries will [do something bad].
Meaning is clear and consistent with intent.

COMMENTS

Kudos!