Kavya123
gurpreetsingh
As per given conditions:
\(\frac{1}{x!}+ \frac{1}{y!}=\frac{1}{q}\) => \(q = \frac{(x!*y!)}{(x!+y!)}\)
Statement 2: no condition about X, thus not sufficient.
Statement 1: x -y=1 => x = y+1 => \(x! = (y+1)y!\)
\(q = \frac{(x!*y!)}{(x!+y!)} = y!*y!* \frac{(y+1)}{(y!*(y+2))}\)
=> \(q = \frac{(y+1)!}{(y+2)}\)
if y = 2 q = 3!/4 = 3/2 not an integer
if y = 4 Q= 5!/6 = 20 = integer
Thus not sufficient.
Considering both the statement y cannot be 2, for all even values of y except 2, q is an integer.
Thus C
Is there a less time consuming solution?
I have a different perspective, but someone let me know if I am off base. I tried to be more logical, than math based.
I set x=a+2 and y=a+3 and plugged for 1/x!+1/y!=1/q... 1/5!+1/4!--> 1/120+5/120 =6/120 = 20
I saw it this way. Any number you will get for \frac{1}{x!} will be odd and added to the \frac{1}{y!}. Any total factorial will be divisible by that number because it has factors built into the total.
To the above - 5! = 1*2*3*4*5 = 120 --- This must be divisible by 6 because 2*3 in the equation equals 6.
By giving that x! is a prime number, and we now our 1/x!+1/y! will always give us an even number. Any denominator will have factor that multiply to equal the numerator.
1/7!+1/6! -->1/5040+7/5040 = 8/5040 Because 2*4 is a part of 7!, we know it will result in an integer.
It makes sense in my madness...