Britain's economic growth was slower in the mid-1970's and its decline

Agree with D...

Again a case where the sentence is longer, yet is more accurate than the rest!

Can someone explain D and E. Thanks!

Hi I think the game changer is the correct form of comparison used in D

The economy of Britain grew more slowly in the mid-1970's and declined much more rapidly in the subsequent recession than did the economy of the United States.

E. Britain's economy grew more slowly in the mid-1970's and its decline was much more rapid during the subsequent recession than the economy of the United States.

==========
The D britiain's economic decline is compared to that of united state

whereas in E Britain's economic decline is compared to USA.



Hope its useful,Someone correct if I am wrong.

@Zarrolou

Your explanations are really awesome, if there was +100 kudos button I would click that every single time!

Ans D. comparison is correct.

In E - comparison is wrong. the decline is compared with the economy of the United States.

A, B, C - again comparison error.

A. Wrong comparison: Britain’s economic growth has been compared with the United States
B. Wrong comparison: Britain’s economic growth has been compared with the United States
C. Wrong comparison: Britain’s economic growth has been compared with the United States
D. CORRECT
E. Not parallel … ‘grew’ is not parallel to ‘its decline’.

Britain's economic growth was slower in the mid-1970's and its decline much more rapid in the subsequent recession than the United States.


A.Britain's economic growth was slower in the mid-1970's and its decline much more rapid in the subsequent recession than the United States. - growth vs united states ; usage of its to refer to Britain is incorrect as Britain is not a noun

B. The economic growth of Britain was slower in the mid-1970's and it declined much more rapidly in the subsequent recession than the United States did. - growth vs United states

C. Britain's economy, which grew more slowly in the mid-1970's, also had declined much more rapidly in the subsequent recession than the United States did. - economy vs united states

D. The economy of Britain grew more slowly in the mid-1970's and declined much more rapidly in the subsequent recession than did the economy of the United States. - Correct

E. Britain's economy grew more slowly in the mid-1970's and its decline was much more rapid during the subsequent recession than the economy of the United States.- comparison issue - you can't compare a decline to an economy
Here, its (possessive pronoun) can serve to refer to Britain's (preceding possessive). The reason is that both the possessive pronoun and the preceding possessive serve as ADJECTIVES. That said, a reader might wonder whether the intended referent for its is not Britain itself but Britain's ECONOMY.
For this reason, we should look for an answer choice that makes the intended meaning crystal clear.

Answer D

Doing away with extra words in the sentence gives actual answer:
d) The economy of Britain grew slowly and declined more rapidly than did the economy of the United States. parallel with correct tense.
e). Britain's economy grew slowly and its decline was more than the economy of the United States. what does its refer to? Britain or economy? Not clear.

HI GMATNinja, mikemcgarry, egmat, sayantanc2k, RonPurewal, DmitryFarber, MagooshExpert (Carolyn), ccooley, GMATGuruNY, SarahPurewal, EMPOWERgmatVerbal , dave13

One quick query in the above B & C what does did refers to? declined

In Comparison questions how to identify the verbs such as do, does & did are referring to?

did serves to stand in for the simple past tense form of an antecedent verb.
An OA in GMATPrep:
Since 1990 the global economy has grown more than it did during the 10,000 years from the beginning of agriculture to 1950.
Here, did serves to stand in for the simple past tense form of the antecedent verb has grown.
Conveyed meaning:
Since 1990 the global economy has grown more than it GREW during the 10,000 years from the beginning of agriculture to 1950.

B: The economic growth of Britain...declined much more rapidly in the subsequent recession than the United States did.
Here, did serves to stand in for the simple past tense form of the antecedent verb declined.
Conveyed meaning:
The economic growth of Britain declined much more rapidly in the subsequent recession than the United States DECLINED.
This meaning is nonsensical.
It is contradictory to say that the GROWTH DECLINED.
It is illogical to compare how the GROWTH declined to how the UNITED STATES declined.
Eliminate B.

C: Britain's economy...had declined much more rapidly in the subsequent recession than the United States did.
Here, did serves to stand in for the simple past tense form of the antecedent verb had declined.
Conveyed meaning:
Britain's economy had declined much more rapidly in the subsequent recession than the United States DECLINED.
This meaning is nonsensical.
There is no justification for the usage of the past perfect (had declined).
It is illogical to compare how the ECONOMY had declined to how the UNITED STATES declined.
Eliminate C.

Similarly:
does serves to stand in for the singular simple present tense form of an antecedent verb.
do serves to stand in for the plural simple present tense form of an antecedent verb.

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see below some information maybe you will find it helpful NandishSS

Pro-form is a word or phrase that can take the place of another word (or word group) in a sentence. The process of substituting pro-forms for other words is called proformation.
In English, the most common pro-forms are pronouns, but other words (such as here, there, so, not, and do) can also function as pro-forms.
The pro-form is the referring word in a sentence; the word or word group that's referred to is the antecedent.


"Do" as a Pro-Form

"Do is used as a pro-form when the predicate itself and all the complements which follow it are elided (Jack hurt himself fetching water, and Jill did, too). If another auxiliary is present, the pro-form do is less common (Has Jack hurt himself? Yes, he has; also, Yes, he has done.
. .). Note that the pro-form do is not the same lexeme as the auxiliary do; the latter has only the forms do, does, did while the pro-form has these as well as done and doing."


Source: https://www.thoughtco.com/pro-form-grammar-1691537


another example

VERBAL SUBSTITUTION: By means of do and it substitutes for the lexical verb, eg Did you see Tom last week? – ‘I did on Thursday’ / ‘I might have done.’ - do is a pro-form for the predicate: Martin drives a car, and his sister does, too.

o By means of do so that functions as a pro-form for the predicate or predication: They planned to reach the top of the mountain, but nobody knows if they did (so). You can take the train back to Madrid, but I shouldn’t (do so) until tomorrow morning.

dave13 +1

Promotion of what? Lol

Will take after GMAT

Eliminate A, B, and C - wrong comparison
(A) Britain's economic growth than the United States.
(B) The economic growth of Britain than the United States did.
(C) Britain's economy than the United States did.

Option D is correct with comparison and parallelism - grew || declined (past tense)
(D) The economy of Britain than did the economy of the United States.

(E) Britain's economy than the economy of the United States
Flaw in option E: ambiguity with pronoun "its decline" and parallelsim error "grew" (past tense) not || with "decline" (present tense)

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