Jarvis07
Hello All,
In case of parallelism, can an auxiliary verb be parallel to the main verb? In the below given example, is
'has' parallel to '
forced'?
The new telecommunications company not only
has captured customers from other phone companies but also
forced these companies to offer competitive prices.
Will highly appreciate any response.
Thanks!
mcelroytutoring ,
AjiteshArun ,
GMATNinja ,
mikemcgarry ,
egmat ,
RonPurewal ,
DmitryFarber ,
MagooshExpert ,
ccooley , other experts-- please enlighten
Hi Jarvis07,
There are multiple things we should look at here:
1. Try not to look at the helping verb separately, unless the question (or option) splits the verb.
For example, in your sentence, the two verbs are {has captured} and {forced}. We wouldn't normally say that
has is parallel to
forced. Instead, we'd say that
has captured is parallel to
forced.
2. In (1), we have one verb in the
present perfect tense and another in the
simple past tense. This is because we don't expect the GMAT to distribute the
has to
forced from inside the
not only... but also. The safest approach would be to not treat this as an absolute.
3. If we need to clearly mark the second verb as being in the present perfect tense (meaning call), we could move the
has outside the
not only... but also.
3a.
The new telecommunications company has not only {captured customers from other phone companies} but also {forced these companies to offer competitive prices}. ← Both
captured and
forced are past participles here.