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# CD Industralized nations

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16 Feb 2005, 17:36
In the industrialized nations, the last century has witnessed a shortening of the average workday from twelve hours or longer to less than eight hours. Mindful of this enormous increase in leisure time over the past century, many people assume that the same trend has obtained throughout history, and that, therefore, prehistoric humans must have labored incessantly for their very survival.

We cannot, of course, directly test this assumption. However, a study of primitive peoples of today suggests a different conclusion. The Mbuti of central Africa, for instance, spend only a few hours each day in hunting, gathering, and tending to other economic necessities. The rest of their time is spent as they choose. The implication is that the short workday is not peculiar to industrialized societies. Rather, both the extended workday of 1880 and the shorter workday of today are products of different stages of the continuing process of industrialization.

1. Which of the following inferences about industrialization is best supported by the passage above?

(A) People in advanced industrialized societies have more leisure time than those in nonindustrialized societies.

(B) An average workday of twelve hours or more is peculiar to economies in the early stages of industrialization.

(C) Industrialization involves a trade-off between tedious, monotonous jobs and the benefits of increased leisure.

(D) It is likely that the extended workday of an industrializing country will eventually be shortened.

(E) As industrialization progresses, people tend to look for self-fulfillment in leisure rather than work.

2. Which of the following, if true, would most greatly strengthen the argument made in the passage above?

(A) In recent decades, the economy of the Mbuti has been markedly affected by the encroachment of modern civilization.

(B) The life-style of the Mbuti is similar to that of prehistoric humans.

(C) The Mbuti have no words in their language to express the distinction between work activities and leisure activities.

(D) The workday of a European peasant in medieval times averaged between eleven and fifteen hours.

(E) The members of the Shaklik tribe in central Asia have an average workday of ten to twelve hours.
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16 Feb 2005, 18:52
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16 Feb 2005, 19:40
1. B. the passage implies that more work hours and short work hours are two different states of industralization. it means during the early days of industralization of a given economy, more (12) work hours are likely.

2. B. if the life style of Mubuti people is similar to the life style of prehistoric man, then the conclusion of the argument can be subsantiated.
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17 Feb 2005, 11:25
MA wrote:
1. B. the passage implies that more work hours and short work hours are two different states of industralization. it means during the early days of industralization of a given economy, more (12) work hours are likely.

2. B. if the life style of Mubuti people is similar to the life style of prehistoric man, then the conclusion of the argument can be subsantiated.

Would you explain why B strength the argument for Q2?

btw, the OA is D B
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17 Feb 2005, 11:36
1) "In the industrialized nations, the last century has witnessed a shortening of the average workday from twelve hours or longer to less than eight hours" and then that is compared to prehistoric men. Therfore the inference here is that as countries industrialize they will have a shorter workday and more time for leisure...D

2) If Mbuti lifestyle is similar to prehistoric man then the authors argument is strengthened because that is an assumption he makes in his argument. If his assumption is validated then it becomes stronger...B
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17 Feb 2005, 12:29
I believe the answers are (D) and (B)

The second paragraph has no relation to industrialization. So we have to infer from only the first paragraph. I believe only (D) can be infered.

In the second paragraph the arument says that a non industrail society also has short work hours. To compare this society with socities prior to industrialization the life styles have to be same. I mean compare apples to apples.
This is what choice (B) for the second Q does.
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17 Feb 2005, 12:52
greenandwise wrote:
1) "In the industrialized nations, the last century has witnessed a shortening of the average workday from twelve hours or longer to less than eight hours" and then that is compared to prehistoric men. Therfore the inference here is that as countries industrialize they will have a shorter workday and more time for leisure...D

2) If Mbuti lifestyle is similar to prehistoric man then the authors argument is strengthened because that is an assumption he makes in his argument. If his assumption is validated then it becomes stronger...B

greenandwise, from the reasoning that you used for Q1 can you reason why 'B' cannot be inferred
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17 Feb 2005, 12:56
greenandwise wrote:
1) "In the industrialized nations, the last century has witnessed a shortening of the average workday from twelve hours or longer to less than eight hours" and then that is compared to prehistoric men. Therfore the inference here is that as countries industrialize they will have a shorter workday and more time for leisure...D

2) If Mbuti lifestyle is similar to prehistoric man then the authors argument is strengthened because that is an assumption he makes in his argument. If his assumption is validated then it becomes stronger...B

greenandwise, from the reasoning that you used for Q1 can you reason why 'B' cannot be inferred

My opinion....

In the industrialized nations, the last century has witnessed a shortening of the average workday from twelve hours or longer to less than eight hours.
This may mean the during the begining of the industrialization the average work hour might be 12 hours.

But the choice (B) says that this is not so. Hence it is not correct.

An average workday of twelve hours or more is peculiar to economies in the early stages of industrialization.
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17 Feb 2005, 13:40
anandnk wrote:
My opinion....

In the industrialized nations, the last century has witnessed a shortening of the average workday from twelve hours or longer to less than eight hours.
This may mean the during the begining of the industrialization the average work hour might be 12 hours.

But the choice (B) says that this is not so. Hence it is not correct.

An average workday of twelve hours or more is peculiar to economies in the early stages of industrialization.

anandnk, may be I am not following you but it looks like you have said that it could be 'B'.
According to the passage - during the last century the industrialized nations had shorter workdays so in other words the industrialized nations had a longer workday in the early stages of industrialization - as in 'B'
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17 Feb 2005, 14:19
anandnk wrote:
My opinion....

In the industrialized nations, the last century has witnessed a shortening of the average workday from twelve hours or longer to less than eight hours.
This may mean the during the begining of the industrialization the average work hour might be 12 hours.

But the choice (B) says that this is not so. Hence it is not correct.

An average workday of twelve hours or more is peculiar to economies in the early stages of industrialization.

anandnk, may be I am not following you but it looks like you have said that it could be 'B'.
According to the passage - during the last century the industrialized nations had shorter workdays so in other words the industrialized nations had a longer workday in the early stages of industrialization - as in 'B'

In the the industrialized societies the work days got shorter from 12 hours to 8 hours.
Assume industrialization started in 1900.
The work day at that time may be 12 hours and now it is 8 hours.
The stem goes further saying that people may have worked even longer hours before the industrialization started.

Now look at (B)
(B) says if an industrial society exists then during its begining it is unusual (peculiar) to have people work 12 hours day. This is exact opposite of what the stem said.
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17 Feb 2005, 14:33
anandnk wrote:
In the the industrialized societies the work days got shorter from 12 hours to 8 hours.
Assume industrialization started in 1900.
The work day at that time may be 12 hours and now it is 8 hours.
The stem goes further saying that people may have worked even longer hours before the industrialization started.

Now look at (B)
(B) says if an industrial society exists then during its begining it is unusual (peculiar) to have people work 12 hours day. This is exact opposite of what the stem said.

Thanks anandnk, I totally missed out on the peculiar part, once again thanks for your time.
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17 Feb 2005, 15:31
anandnk wrote:
anandnk wrote:
My opinion....

In the industrialized nations, the last century has witnessed a shortening of the average workday from twelve hours or longer to less than eight hours.
This may mean the during the begining of the industrialization the average work hour might be 12 hours.

But the choice (B) says that this is not so. Hence it is not correct.

An average workday of twelve hours or more is peculiar to economies in the early stages of industrialization.

anandnk, may be I am not following you but it looks like you have said that it could be 'B'.
According to the passage - during the last century the industrialized nations had shorter workdays so in other words the industrialized nations had a longer workday in the early stages of industrialization - as in 'B'

In the the industrialized societies the work days got shorter from 12 hours to 8 hours.
Assume industrialization started in 1900.
The work day at that time may be 12 hours and now it is 8 hours.
The stem goes further saying that people may have worked even longer hours before the industrialization started.

Now look at (B)
(B) says if an industrial society exists then during its begining it is unusual (peculiar) to have people work 12 hours day. This is exact opposite of what the stem said.

...but peculiar doesnt mean unusual...it means specific ! i say B) and B)
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17 Feb 2005, 19:10
christoph wrote:

...but peculiar doesnt mean unusual...it means specific ! i say B) and B)

peculiar does mean unusual or odd
http://dictionary.reference.com/search?q=peculiar
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18 Feb 2005, 03:54
anandnk wrote:
christoph wrote:

...but peculiar doesnt mean unusual...it means specific ! i say B) and B)

peculiar does mean unusual or odd
http://dictionary.reference.com/search?q=peculiar

hm ? i found this definition:

(n.) That which is peculiar; a sole or exclusive property; a prerogative; a characteristic.

http://en.thinkexist.com/dictionary/meaning/Peculiar/
18 Feb 2005, 03:54
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