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18 Jan 2024, 05:01
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Hi,
On page 45 of the Manhattan Prep Sentence Correction book, we are asked to choose the sentence with the correct meaning.
If you look at Q1, they say that the bold face is incorrect because it changes the meaning (even though it is a meaningful sentence and completely makes sense).
However, in Q4, they say that the bold face is correct because the meaning makes sense, even though it also changed the meaning.
So, I am not sure, is the boldface in Q1 incorrect? Why? The boldface in Q4 also changes the meaning, but it is deemed correct.
Please see screenshots below.
Thanks!
On page 45 of the Manhattan Prep Sentence Correction book, we are asked to choose the sentence with the correct meaning.
If you look at Q1, they say that the bold face is incorrect because it changes the meaning (even though it is a meaningful sentence and completely makes sense).
However, in Q4, they say that the bold face is correct because the meaning makes sense, even though it also changed the meaning.
So, I am not sure, is the boldface in Q1 incorrect? Why? The boldface in Q4 also changes the meaning, but it is deemed correct.
Please see screenshots below.
Thanks!
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18 Jan 2024, 23:25
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Mahm1977
Hi Mahm1977,
Here's an official question that tests the same thing.
In such situations, we don't want to remove options because they "change the meaning". Instead, we want to remove options that convey an incorrect meaning. For example, in the Robert Carter question:
1. He set free the {more than 500} slaves who were legally considered his property. ← This means that more than 500 slaves were considered his property, and he set them all free.
2. He set free more than the {500} slaves who were legally considered his property. ← This means that 500 slaves were considered his property, but he set more slaves than those 500 free.
Here's another question that tests meaning [01:29:57]:
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