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Originally posted by carouselambra on 13 Apr 2020, 22:59.
Last edited by carouselambra on 13 Apr 2020, 23:02, edited 1 time in total.
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Doctors in Britain have long suspected that patients who wear tinted eyeglasses are abnormally prone to depression and hypochondria. Psychological tests given there to hospital patients admitted for physical complaints like heart pain and digestive distress confirmed such a relationship. Perhaps people whose relationship to the world is psychologically painful choose such glasses to reduce visual stimulation, which is perceived as irritating. At any rate, it can be concluded that when such glasses are worn, it is because the wearer has a tendency to be depressed or hypochondriacal.
The argument assumes which of the following?
a. Depression is not caused in some cases by an organic condition of the body. b. Wearers do not think tinted glasses as a means of distancing themselves from other people. c. Depression can have many causes, including actual conditions about which it is reasonable for anyone to be depressed. d. For hypocondriacs wearing tinted glasses, the glasses serve as a visual signs to others that the wearer's health is delicate. e. The tinting does not dim light to the eye enough to depress the wearer's mood substantially.
Can someone please tell me why option B is wrong? B and E, both can be assumed.
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Why is option B wrong? The conclusion states that Cause is depression and the effect is wearing glasses. A fair assumption can also be - when wearers do not think that tinted glasses cannot be used for anything else? Why is that wrong?
Doctors in Britain have long suspected that patients who wear tinted eyeglasses are abnormally prone to depression and hypochondria. Psychological tests given there to hospital patients admitted for physical complaints like heart pain and digestive distress confirmed such a relationship. Perhaps people whose relationship to the world is psychologically painful choose such glasses to reduce visual stimulation, which is perceived as irritating. At any rate, it can be concluded that when such glasses are worn, it is because the wearer has a tendency to be depressed or hypochondriacal.
The argument assumes which of the following?
a. Depression is not caused in some cases by an organic condition of the body. b. Wearers do not think tinted glasses as a means of distancing themselves from other people. c. Depression can have many causes, including actual conditions about which it is reasonable for anyone to be depressed. d. For hypocondriacs wearing tinted glasses, the glasses serve as a visual signs to others that the wearer's health is delicate. e. The tinting does not dim light to the eye enough to depress the wearer's mood substantially.
Can someone please tell me why option B is wrong? B and E, both can be assumed.
Still interested in this question? Check out the "Best Topics" block above for a better discussion on this exact question, as well as several more related questions.