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I was watching MGMAT study hall video of Ron. in that he makes a sentence - "\On the stage are Professor Y and Professor X, the latter of whom recently won a nobel prize for his work"
Can an expert pls explain why if we just use "the latter of whom" is not a comma splice anymore v/s when we simply use "the latter"?
Because what follows the comma has "of whom" after "the latter," that portion is not an independent clause. It's a relative clause.
A relative clause is connected to what precedes it by the relative pronoun, rather than by a conjunction. So, since "whom" is used, no conjunction is needed.