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Bunuel
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GMAT 1: 740 Q51 V39
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\(1 \, l = 2.1 \,pints\) means that \(1,000 \,ml = 2.1\, pints\)

We know that: \(1 \,ml = 0.04 \,ounce\) ⭢ \(1,000\, ml = 40 \,ounce\)

Therefore \(2.1 \,pints = 40 \,ounce\), which is in fractions: \(\frac{21}{10} \,pints = 40 \,ounce\).

\(1\, pint = 40*\frac{10}{21} \,ounce\)

\(1\, pint = \frac{400}{21}\, ounce\), which can be approximated to \(\frac{400}{20}\), which is equal to 20.


Answer: C
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Bunuel
If 1 millilitre of a certain chemical weighs 0.04 ounce, then the weight of 1 pint of this chemical is closest to which of the following number of ounces? (1 litre = 2.1 pints, rounded to the nearest tenthof a pint)

A. 8
B. 15
C. 19
D. 67
E. 84


Video Explanation:

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