Bunuel
If \(\frac{1}{(x – 2)} = \frac{1}{(x + 2)} + \frac{1}{(x – 1)}\), which of the following is a possible value of x?
(A) –2
(B) –1
(C) 0
(D) 1
(E) 2
A super-fast approach is to
test the answer choicesIMPORTANT: Our work will be made even faster if we recognize that none of denominators (in the given equation) can equal zero. Otherwise, that fraction will be undefined.So, we can automatically eliminate answer choices A, D and E, since they will all yield denominators that are equal to 0.
We're left with only answer choices B and C (and we haven't even done any work yet!!!)
Let's test answer choice B Replace \(x\) with\( -1\) to get: \(\frac{1}{(-1) – 2} = \frac{1}{(-1) + 2} + \frac{1}{(-1) – 1}\)
Simplify to get: \(-\frac{1}{3} = \frac{1}{1} + -\frac{1}{2}\)
Doesn't work!!
Eliminate house for choice B.
By the process of elimination, the correct answer is C
Aside: If we're confident in the work we've done so far, we did not actually test answer choice C. But, if you're not convinced let's check.. Replace \(x\) with \(0\) to get: \(\frac{1}{0 – 2} = \frac{1}{0 + 2} + \frac{1}{0 – 1}\)
Simplify to get: \(-\frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{2} - 1\)
It WORKS!
Answer: C
Cheers,
Brent