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Re: If the function f is defined by f(p) = p^2 + 1/p^2 for all non-zero nu [#permalink]
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Bunuel wrote:
If the function f is defined by \(f(p) = p^2 + \frac{1}{p^2}\) for all non-zero numbers p, then \((f(−\frac{1}{√p}))^2 =\)


(A) \(f(p) + 2\)

(B) \(\frac{2}{f(p^2)}\)

(C) \((\frac{1}{f(√p)})^2\)

(D) \(1 − (f(√p))^2\)

(E) \(f(p) - 2\)


First, f(-1/√p) = (-1/√p)^2 + 1/(-1/√p)^2 = 1/p + 1/(1/p) = 1/p + p.

Next, (1/p + p)^2 = 1/p^2 + 2(1/p)(p) + p^2 = p^2 + 1/p^2 + 2.

So, (f(-1/√p))^2 = p^2 + 1/p^2 + 2. However, since f(p) = p^2 + 1/p^2, then we see that (f(-1/√p))^2 = f(p) + 2.

Answer: A
GMAT Club Bot
Re: If the function f is defined by f(p) = p^2 + 1/p^2 for all non-zero nu [#permalink]
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