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If the original price of an item in a retail store is marked [#permalink]

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26 Nov 2013, 07:10

15

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A

B

C

D

E

Difficulty:

95% (hard)

Question Stats:

36% (02:04) correct
64% (01:37) wrong based on 362 sessions

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If the original price of an item in a retail store is marked up by m percent and the resulting price is then discounted by d percent, where m and d are integers between 0 and 100, is the item’s final price (after both changes) greater than its original price?

If the original price of an item in a retail store is marked up by m percent and the resulting price is then discounted by d percent, where m and d are integers between 0 and 100, is the item’s final price (after both changes) greater than its original price?

Say the original price is 100. The price after the mark up = \(100(1+\frac{m}{100}) = 100 + m\); The price after the discount = \((100+m)(1-\frac{d}{100}) = 100-d+m-\frac{md}{100}\);

The questions asks: is \(100-d+m-\frac{md}{100}>100\)? --> is \(100m-100d-md>0\)

(1) m > d. If \(m=3\) and \(d=2\), then the answer is YES nut if but if \(m=60\) and \(d=40\), then the answer is NO. Not sufficient.

(2) m = 1.5d. Use the same numbers as above. Not sufficient.

If the original price of an item in a retail store is marked up by m percent and the resulting price is then discounted by d percent, where m and d are integers between 0 and 100, is the item’s final price (after both changes) greater than its original price?

Say the original price is 100. The price after the mark up = \(100(1+\frac{m}{100}) = 100 + m\); The price after the discount = \((100+m)(1-\frac{d}{100}) = 100-d+m-\frac{md}{100}\);

The questions asks: is \(100-d+m-\frac{md}{100}>100\)? --> is \(100m-100d-md>0\)

(1) m > d. If \(m=3\) and \(d=2\), then the answer is YES nut if but if \(m=60\) and \(d=40\), then the answer is NO. Not sufficient.

(2) m = 1.5d. Use the same numbers as above. Not sufficient.

Re: If the original price of an item in a retail store is marked [#permalink]

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12 Apr 2014, 11:17

Bunuel wrote:

If the original price of an item in a retail store is marked up by m percent and the resulting price is then discounted by d percent, where m and d are integers between 0 and 100, is the item’s final price (after both changes) greater than its original price?

Say the original price is 100. The price after the mark up = \(100(1+\frac{m}{100}) = 100 + m\); The price after the discount = \((100+m)(1-\frac{d}{100}) = 100-d+m-\frac{md}{100}\);

The questions asks: is \(100-d+m-\frac{md}{100}>100\)? --> is \(100m-100d-md>0\)

(1) m > d. If \(m=3\) and \(d=2\), then the answer is YES nut if but if \(m=60\) and \(d=40\), then the answer is NO. Not sufficient.

(2) m = 1.5d. Use the same numbers as above. Not sufficient.

(1)+(2) Use the same numbers. Not sufficient.

Answer: E.

Hope it's clear.

Hi Bunuel, Just to confirm, the formula for 3 variables. For 3 items +m , +d, -x then will it be ...

Re: If the original price of an item in a retail store is marked [#permalink]

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12 Apr 2014, 12:53

seabhi wrote:

Bunuel wrote:

If the original price of an item in a retail store is marked up by m percent and the resulting price is then discounted by d percent, where m and d are integers between 0 and 100, is the item’s final price (after both changes) greater than its original price?

Say the original price is 100. The price after the mark up = \(100(1+\frac{m}{100}) = 100 + m\); The price after the discount = \((100+m)(1-\frac{d}{100}) = 100-d+m-\frac{md}{100}\);

The questions asks: is \(100-d+m-\frac{md}{100}>100\)? --> is \(100m-100d-md>0\)

(1) m > d. If \(m=3\) and \(d=2\), then the answer is YES nut if but if \(m=60\) and \(d=40\), then the answer is NO. Not sufficient.

(2) m = 1.5d. Use the same numbers as above. Not sufficient.

(1)+(2) Use the same numbers. Not sufficient.

Answer: E.

Hope it's clear.

Hi Bunuel, Just to confirm, the formula for 3 variables. For 3 items +m , +d, -x then will it be ...

= 100+m+d-x -(mdx/100)

Hello - If you mean (100+m)(1+d/100)(1-x/100), then obviously it is not equal to 100+m+d-x - mdx/100

Letme know if you meant something else. --------------------------- Kudos if the post helped

Re: If the original price of an item in a retail store is marked [#permalink]

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19 Jan 2015, 00:20

Bunuel wrote:

If the original price of an item in a retail store is marked up by m percent and the resulting price is then discounted by d percent, where m and d are integers between 0 and 100, is the item’s final price (after both changes) greater than its original price?

Say the original price is 100. The price after the mark up = \(100(1+\frac{m}{100}) = 100 + m\); The price after the discount = \((100+m)(1-\frac{d}{100}) = 100-d+m-\frac{md}{100}\);

The questions asks: is \(100-d+m-\frac{md}{100}>100\)? --> is \(100m-100d-md>0\)

(1) m > d. If \(m=3\) and \(d=2\), then the answer is YES nut if but if \(m=60\) and \(d=40\), then the answer is NO. Not sufficient.

(2) m = 1.5d. Use the same numbers as above. Not sufficient.

(1)+(2) Use the same numbers. Not sufficient.

Answer: E.

Hope it's clear.

Hi Bunuel

What suppose if the Question does not mention that m & d are integers. In such a case m & d can even be decimals. Still the answer would be E correct?

If the original price of an item in a retail store is marked up by m percent and the resulting price is then discounted by d percent, where m and d are integers between 0 and 100, is the item’s final price (after both changes) greater than its original price?

Say the original price is 100. The price after the mark up = \(100(1+\frac{m}{100}) = 100 + m\); The price after the discount = \((100+m)(1-\frac{d}{100}) = 100-d+m-\frac{md}{100}\);

The questions asks: is \(100-d+m-\frac{md}{100}>100\)? --> is \(100m-100d-md>0\)

(1) m > d. If \(m=3\) and \(d=2\), then the answer is YES nut if but if \(m=60\) and \(d=40\), then the answer is NO. Not sufficient.

(2) m = 1.5d. Use the same numbers as above. Not sufficient.

(1)+(2) Use the same numbers. Not sufficient.

Answer: E.

Hope it's clear.

Hi Bunuel

What suppose if the Question does not mention that m & d are integers. In such a case m & d can even be decimals. Still the answer would be E correct?

Thanks

Yes, the answer would still be E.
_________________

Re: If the original price of an item in a retail store is marked [#permalink]

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25 Apr 2016, 07:27

Hello from the GMAT Club BumpBot!

Thanks to another GMAT Club member, I have just discovered this valuable topic, yet it had no discussion for over a year. I am now bumping it up - doing my job. I think you may find it valuable (esp those replies with Kudos).

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Re: If the original price of an item in a retail store is marked [#permalink]

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10 Jun 2016, 10:55

singhmaharaj wrote:

If the original price of an item in a retail store is marked up by m percent and the resulting price is then discounted by d percent, where m and d are integers between 0 and 100, is the item’s final price (after both changes) greater than its original price?

(1) m > d

(2) m = 1.5d

My answer B

Both the given options were same in which it states that m>d Final markup/discount is given as m-d-md/100 consider any small number m=2,d=1 then ans will be yes. consider bigger values m=700,d=600 Ans will be No both statements not suff....

Re: If the original price of an item in a retail store is marked [#permalink]

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06 Aug 2017, 12:22

Hello from the GMAT Club BumpBot!

Thanks to another GMAT Club member, I have just discovered this valuable topic, yet it had no discussion for over a year. I am now bumping it up - doing my job. I think you may find it valuable (esp those replies with Kudos).

Want to see all other topics I dig out? Follow me (click follow button on profile). You will receive a summary of all topics I bump in your profile area as well as via email.
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