Last visit was: 24 Apr 2026, 22:31 It is currently 24 Apr 2026, 22:31
Close
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Close
Request Expert Reply
Confirm Cancel
User avatar
rxs0005
Joined: 07 Jun 2004
Last visit: 21 Jun 2017
Posts: 436
Own Kudos:
3,310
 [9]
Given Kudos: 22
Location: PA
Posts: 436
Kudos: 3,310
 [9]
Kudos
Add Kudos
9
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
Bunuel
User avatar
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Last visit: 24 Apr 2026
Posts: 109,818
Own Kudos:
811,092
 [1]
Given Kudos: 105,873
Products:
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 109,818
Kudos: 811,092
 [1]
Kudos
Add Kudos
1
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
Anurag@Gurome
Joined: 13 Oct 2010
Last visit: 29 Nov 2011
Posts: 17
Own Kudos:
16
 [1]
Location: Milpitas, CA
Posts: 17
Kudos: 16
 [1]
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
Bunuel
User avatar
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Last visit: 24 Apr 2026
Posts: 109,818
Own Kudos:
811,092
 [1]
Given Kudos: 105,873
Products:
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 109,818
Kudos: 811,092
 [1]
Kudos
Add Kudos
1
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Anurag@Gurome
The question is \(\frac{1}{(x - y)} < -(x - y)\)
or Is \(1 < -(x - y)^2\)? or Is \((x - y)^2 < -1\)?

(1) \(x^2 + y^2 < 4xy\) implies \(x^2 + y^2 -2xy < 2xy\) or \((x - y)^2 < 2xy\)
Since we don't know any relation between x and y, so statement 1 is NOT SUFFICIENT.

(2) y < x implies (x - y) > 0 or \((x - y)^2 > 0\)
So, answer to the main question is "No"
Statement 2 is SUFFICIENT.

The correct answer is B.

The red part is not correct. You cannot multiply both sides of the inequality by \(x-y\) as you don't know whether this expression is positive or negative. Also answer to the question "is \((x - y)^2 < -1\)?" is always NO as the square of a number can not be negative. Basically if \(x-y>0\) the answer is always NO and if \(x-y<0\) the answer is always YES.

You can simplify the question as follows: is \(\frac{1}{x-y}<y-x\)? --> is \(y-x+\frac{1}{y-x}>0\)? is \(\frac{(y-x)^2+1}{y-x}>0\)? As the nominator (\((y-x)^2+1\)) is always positive then the question basically becomes whether denominator (\(y-x\)) is positive too --> is \(y-x>0\)? or is \(y>x\)?
User avatar
Anurag@Gurome
Joined: 13 Oct 2010
Last visit: 29 Nov 2011
Posts: 17
Own Kudos:
Location: Milpitas, CA
Posts: 17
Kudos: 16
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
You are right, thanks for pointing that.
User avatar
hellosanthosh2k2
Joined: 02 Apr 2014
Last visit: 07 Dec 2020
Posts: 360
Own Kudos:
619
 [1]
Given Kudos: 1,227
Location: India
Schools: XLRI"20
GMAT 1: 700 Q50 V34
GPA: 3.5
Schools: XLRI"20
GMAT 1: 700 Q50 V34
Posts: 360
Kudos: 619
 [1]
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
\(1/(x-y) < (y-x)\)?
rearranging,
\((1/(x-y)) + (x-y) < 0\) ?

if \(x > y\), then \((1/(x-y)) + (x-y)\) is positive
if \(x < y\), then \((1/(x-y)) + (x-y)\) is negative,
so question becomes \(x < y\) ?

Statement 1:
\(x^2 + y^2 < 4xy\)
=>\(x^2 + y^2 - 2xy < 2xy\)
=> \((x - y)^2 < 2xy\)
since \((x - y)^2\) is greater than zero,
so \(2xy > 0\), but this does not tell whether \(x < y\) => Insuff

Statement 2: Directly answers the question => suff

Answer (B)
User avatar
BenTheBomber
Joined: 20 Sep 2023
Last visit: 16 May 2024
Posts: 4
Given Kudos: 16
Posts: 4
Kudos: 0
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
I had a quick question on statement 1. We have derived that (x - y) ^ 2 > 0. Why cannot we write this as (x - y) >0 and thus x > y. Hence making statement 1 as sufficient. Can someone explain why we cannot use this approach, instead choose 2xy> "some positive number"
User avatar
Bunuel
User avatar
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Last visit: 24 Apr 2026
Posts: 109,818
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 105,873
Products:
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 109,818
Kudos: 811,092
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
BenTheBomber
I had a quick question on statement 1. We have derived that (x - y) ^ 2 > 0. Why cannot we write this as (x - y) >0 and thus x > y. Hence making statement 1 as sufficient. Can someone explain why we cannot use this approach, instead choose 2xy> "some positive number"
Not sure I can follow. First of all, where and how was it derived that (x - y)^2 > 0? Also, (x - y)^2 > 0 for all values except when x = y.
User avatar
BenTheBomber
Joined: 20 Sep 2023
Last visit: 16 May 2024
Posts: 4
Given Kudos: 16
Posts: 4
Kudos: 0
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Thanks for your reply Bunuel.
Let me elaborate:
In statement 1, we have:
x^2 + y^2 < 4xy
=> x^2 + y^2 - 2xy < 2xy
=> (x - y) ^ 2 < 2xy.

From here, hellosantosh2k2 chooses 2xy is positive and continues to solve the problem and arrive that statement is 1 insufficient.

At this point I wanted to take an alternate route of choosing (x - y)^2 as positive and explore that term to check for sufficiency.

By explanation and my question is below:
We can say that (x - y)^ 2 is positive as square of (x - y) will always be positive. It can also take a value of 0 if x = y but the question says x!=y.
So, my question is: can we not choose (x - y) ^2 > 0 instead of choosing 2xy > 0? Because if we choose RHS of the inequality then, we arrive at the answer as not sufficient.
But if we choose it to be (x-y)^2 > 0 from RHS of the inequality equation, can we not deduce that (x -y )>0 and then take -y to the right side to make it x > y, thus making the answer sufficient.

I am sure I am violating some rule of inequality or absolute value but cannot put a finger on it. I wanted to know the reason why we cannot choose (x - y) ^ 2 >0, is it because even if we choose it, we cannot remove its squares, or I am completely off the mark and misunderstood this piece completely. 
User avatar
Bunuel
User avatar
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Last visit: 24 Apr 2026
Posts: 109,818
Own Kudos:
811,092
 [1]
Given Kudos: 105,873
Products:
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 109,818
Kudos: 811,092
 [1]
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
BenTheBomber
Thanks for your reply Bunuel.
Let me elaborate:
In statement 1, we have:
x^2 + y^2 < 4xy
=> x^2 + y^2 - 2xy < 2xy
=> (x - y) ^ 2 < 2xy.

From here, hellosantosh2k2 chooses 2xy is positive and continues to solve the problem and arrive that statement is 1 insufficient.

At this point I wanted to take an alternate route of choosing (x - y)^2 as positive and explore that term to check for sufficiency.

By explanation and my question is below:
We can say that (x - y)^ 2 is positive as square of (x - y) will always be positive. It can also take a value of 0 if x = y but the question says x!=y.
So, my question is: can we not choose (x - y) ^2 > 0 instead of choosing 2xy > 0? Because if we choose RHS of the inequality then, we arrive at the answer as not sufficient.
But if we choose it to be (x-y)^2 > 0 from RHS of the inequality equation, can we not deduce that (x -y )>0 and then take -y to the right side to make it x > y, thus making the answer sufficient.

I am sure I am violating some rule of inequality or absolute value but cannot put a finger on it. I wanted to know the reason why we cannot choose (x - y) ^ 2 >0, is it because even if we choose it, we cannot remove its squares, or I am completely off the mark and misunderstood this piece completely. 

The point here is that (x - y)^2 > 0 doesn't necessarily imply that x > y; it simply indicates that x ≠ y. This is because the inequality (x - y)^2 > 0 holds true regardless of whether x > y or x < y. It does not hold only if x ≠ y.

Hope this helps.
User avatar
BenTheBomber
Joined: 20 Sep 2023
Last visit: 16 May 2024
Posts: 4
Given Kudos: 16
Posts: 4
Kudos: 0
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Bunuel Thanks for clarifying that. Your explanation helped me a lot to understand this. Now I am clear. (x - y) ^2 can mean both x > y and y> x. It makes a lot of sense. Appreciate your help. Cheers.
User avatar
bumpbot
User avatar
Non-Human User
Joined: 09 Sep 2013
Last visit: 04 Jan 2021
Posts: 38,979
Own Kudos:
Posts: 38,979
Kudos: 1,117
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Automated notice from GMAT Club BumpBot:

A member just gave Kudos to this thread, showing it’s still useful. I’ve bumped it to the top so more people can benefit. Feel free to add your own questions or solutions.

This post was generated automatically.
Moderators:
Math Expert
109818 posts
498 posts
212 posts