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(A) have been priced to sell, and they are -->passive construction (B) are priced to sell, and they have -->they have is a wrong usage .
(C) are priced to sell, and they do -->bingo,clear and concise
(D) are being priced to sell, and have --> are being is not preferred ,it is very verbose
(E) had been priced to sell, and they have -->wrong usage of sentence
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they "do (sell)" is required here --> "C"
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This was a challenging problem for me but this is how I eliminated the problems ->

(A) have been priced to sell, and they are -> 1st Split: Passive construction
(B) are priced to sell, and they have -> 2nd Split: Complete the sentence with implied verbs. They have been selling?
(C) are priced to sell, and they do 2nd Split: Complete the sentence with implied verbs. They do sell?

(D) are being priced to sell, and have 2nd Split: Complete the sentence with implied verbs. and have sold? Or Maybe have been selling?

(E) had been priced to sell, and they have -> 1st Split: had been is a past perfect construction but there is no simple past to back up the timing. Plus, is there a need to clearify that the prices had been set? The gut check was no

In the second split I didn't know which one to pick but I checked out the first part of the sentence which is "are priced" which is simple present tense and using the guiding principle that GMAT likes to keep tenses parallel unless need to specify timing, I decided to go with C since with B the tense changed and with D being is always something you have to be cautious with.
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Try to complete the sentence in this case and check for parallelism & verbs.

In this case, only Option C completes the sentence correctly.
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Thank You for your posts. The thing I dont get how and why answer "C" is wrong. Is it because the Wrong Verb is being implied?

B Implied verb is "do sell"

C's Impled Verb is "have been selling"
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Thank You for your posts. The thing I dont get how and why answer "C" is wrong. Is it because the Wrong Verb is being implied?

B Implied verb is "do sell"

C's Impled Verb is "have been selling"
Buddy, the verb used earlier should be able to fit after do here
smoothie2003
are priced to sell, and they have
now, the verb used earlier is sell, can u use the same verb after have....i.e. they have sell(wrong), definitely NO
now see option C
smoothie2003
are priced to sell, and they do
verb is sell, and it's fitting the later one also i.e. they do sell
hope now it's clear.
also refer chapter 13 on Helping verbs of mgmat SC .....
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(A) have been priced to sell, and they are A total cocktail of tenses...WRONG
(B) are priced to sell, and they have A total cocktail of tenses...WRONG
(C) are priced to sell, and they do CORRECT!!
(D) are being priced to sell, and have A total cocktail of tenses and is NONSENSE..If they are being priced to sell then how come they have sold, already???? WRONG
(E) had been priced to sell, and they have A total cocktail of tenses...WRONG
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gmatpunjabi
In an effort to reduce teir inventories, Italian vintners have cut prices;their wines have been priced to sell, and they are

(A) have been priced to sell, and they are
(B) are priced to sell, and they have
(C) are priced to sell, and they do
(D) are being priced to sell, and have
(E) had been priced to sell, and they have

OG says the Verb is implied in the last clause. How is this possible??

Thanks in Advance!!

C

the verb "sell" is correctly implied here
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But what about parallelism. Shouldn't "have" be present in the last part of sentence since it is there in the middle part. I understand that "have been" is awkward but still went ahead with option A thinking of parallelism. Please throw some light. Thanks in advance.

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