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In the past, to run for one's country in the Olympics was the ultimate

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In the past, to run for one's country in the Olympics was the ultimate  [#permalink]

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New post 23 Dec 2003, 18:03
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A
B
C
D
E

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  45% (medium)

Question Stats:

63% (01:22) correct 37% (01:35) wrong based on 685 sessions

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In the past, to run for one's country in the Olympics was the ultimate achievement of any athlete. Nowadays, an athlete's motives are more and more influenced by financial gain, and consequently we do not see our best athletes in the Olympics, which is still only for amateurs.

Which of the following will most weaken the above conclusion?


(A) The publicity and fame that can be achieved by competing in the Olympics makes athletes more "marketable" by agents and potential sponsors, while allowing the athletes to retain their amateur status.

(B) The winning of a race is not as important as participating.

(C) There is a widely held belief that our best Olympic athletes already receive enough in terms of promotion and sponsorship.

(D) It has been suggested that professional athletes should be allowed to compete in the games.

(E) Athletics as an entertainment is like any other entertainment job and deserves a financial reward.
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In the past, to run for one's country in the Olympics was the ultimate  [#permalink]

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New post 24 Dec 2003, 09:12

Official answer: A



It is facts that athletes can attract sponsorship and make money and that participation in the Olympics can aid this process. On the basis that it is true that athletes are more and more attracted by the profit motive, the conclusion that the best athletes do not compete in the Olympics is weakened. Therefore, A is the appropriate answer. Alternative (B) is an oft-stated maxim, but in this case, it is not relevant to the argument. The fact that people believe that amateur athletes are receiving adequate alternative remuneration does not bear on the argument for allowing genuine professional athletes into the games. So, (C) is innappropriate. Choice (D) comes close to weakening the argument, because if professional (as well as amateur) athletes were allowed to compete, presuming the participants were selected on merit, then the best athletes would be seen. However, it has only been a suggestion, perhaps in the past, (in which case it was not adopted) or in the future (in which case its adoption is not certain). Choice (E) represents an opinion that might or might not be held by the writer, but, whether or not the author agrees, it does not weaken the argument; therefore (E) is inappropriate.
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Re: In the past, to run for one's country in the Olympics was the ultimate  [#permalink]

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New post 20 Sep 2013, 21:30
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The answer is 'A'.

Question Stem - A weakening question

Conclusion - Olympics is only NOW meant for amateurs (the one who likes participating in sport for pleasure rather than being financially involved).
The author is presuming that athletes' now a days do not perform to the best of their abilities and are NOW only involve with Olympics from the financial gain point of view.

So, if we can find a reason that can make us prove - amateurs also in any way get all the financial gains after participating in Olympics and if fame, recognition and money are one of the reasons that's attract amateurs to participate in Olympics, weaken author's conclusion. A does that and thus, the answer.

All the other choices seem irrelevant.

Hope it helps !!
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Re: In the past, to run for one's country in the Olympics was the ultimate  [#permalink]

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New post 23 Oct 2016, 14:25
Don't think A is correct answer.

Question stem says "Nowadays, an athlete's motives are more and more influenced by financial gain, and consequently we do not see our best athletes in the Olympics, which is still only for amateurs".

It says financial motives are the reason why new blood is not coming to Olympics but only amateurs are participating.

Following weakens
new people are not properly trained,
not proper concentration by the country on new ones
facilities do not support new ones to get trained by Olympics
internal politics does not allow
Proper channel or help from government or others to participate in Olympics

If publicity and fame are the reasons then those are clearly related to financial gains. Any publicity and fame gives a financial gains and supports the conclusion.

Only C is the right answer.
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Re: In the past, to run for one's country in the Olympics was the ultimate  [#permalink]

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New post 31 Oct 2016, 06:17
ravikrishna1979 wrote:
Don't think A is correct answer.

Question stem says "Nowadays, an athlete's motives are more and more influenced by financial gain, and consequently we do not see our best athletes in the Olympics, which is still only for amateurs".

It says financial motives are the reason why new blood is not coming to Olympics but only amateurs are participating.

Following weakens
new people are not properly trained,
not proper concentration by the country on new ones
facilities do not support new ones to get trained by Olympics
internal politics does not allow
Proper channel or help from government or others to participate in Olympics

If publicity and fame are the reasons then those are clearly related to financial gains. Any publicity and fame gives a financial gains and supports the conclusion.

Only C is the right answer.


You are right with the view on point A. Point A does not weaken enough. It still says it attracts amateurs. But then choice C is also as bad. What is the guarantee that after receiving enough compensation the best talent continues to ask for more. This still does not weaken the argument.The line of the argument is since financial rewards is important , best athletes will not compete in Olympics. The question is assuming that competing in Olympics isnt financially rewarding enough. The answer that properly weakens holds the premise steady i.e. financial rewards but goes the other way ...
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Re: In the past, to run for one's country in the Olympics was the ultimate  [#permalink]

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New post 31 Oct 2016, 20:39
A is flawed, since it restricts itself to amateurs. However, C is completely out of scope. What is commonly believed has no bearing on whether the best athletes are really drawn to the Olympics.
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Re: In the past, to run for one's country in the Olympics was the ultimate  [#permalink]

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New post 31 Oct 2016, 22:51
DmitryFarber wrote:
A is flawed, since it restricts itself to amateurs. However, C is completely out of scope. What is commonly believed has no bearing on whether the best athletes are really drawn to the Olympics.


Thanks Dmitry. The official answer does look flawed to me. The reason I chose that is because I found it better than the rest of the choices. Do we expect questions with such answer choices on the test?
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Re: In the past, to run for one's country in the Olympics was the ultimate  [#permalink]

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New post 31 Oct 2016, 23:02
If winning is not as imortant then we are weakening the argument by saying that participation is priority so no financial interest is held

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Re: In the past, to run for one's country in the Olympics was the ultimate  [#permalink]

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New post 31 Oct 2016, 23:15
No, the whole feel of this question is not very GMAT-like, and the flaw in A is exactly the kind of detail that we have to look out for in incorrect answer choices.
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Re: In the past, to run for one's country in the Olympics was the ultimate  [#permalink]

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New post 24 Mar 2017, 00:12
Lot of questions from different sources on gmatclub forum.
I have seen comment in which poeple tend to challenge the questions, saying that these are not the kind of questions the actual GMAT asks.

Personally, I have started doing OG questions 70% of the time and 30% for other sources.
I believe, OG questions can not be challenged.
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Re: In the past, to run for one's country in the Olympics was the ultimate  [#permalink]

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New post 10 Sep 2018, 03:47
Hello from the GMAT Club VerbalBot!

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Re: In the past, to run for one's country in the Olympics was the ultimate &nbs [#permalink] 10 Sep 2018, 03:47
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In the past, to run for one's country in the Olympics was the ultimate

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