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# Is G>H ?

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Current Student
Joined: 12 Aug 2015
Posts: 2562
Schools: Boston U '20 (M)
GRE 1: Q169 V154

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09 Apr 2016, 22:07
1
3
00:00

Difficulty:

25% (medium)

Question Stats:

72% (00:56) correct 28% (00:51) wrong based on 73 sessions

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Is G>H ?
[A] G-5>H-5
[B] G^2>GH

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Marshall & McDonough Moderator
Joined: 13 Apr 2015
Posts: 1683
Location: India

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09 Apr 2016, 22:30
1
St1: G - 5 > H - 5 --> Clearly sufficient to prove G > H

St2: G^2 - GH > 0
G^2 is positive --> G can be negative or positive
Suppose the value of GH is negative --> If G is positive and H is negative then G > H
If G is negative and H is positive then G < H
Not Sufficient

Edited the solution
Manager
Joined: 16 Jan 2013
Posts: 76
GMAT 1: 490 Q41 V18
GMAT 2: 610 Q45 V28
GPA: 2.75

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27 May 2016, 05:04
1
Vyshak wrote:
St1: G - 5 > H - 5 --> Clearly sufficient to prove G > H

St2: G(G - H) > 0 --> G > 0 or G > H
If G > 0; H can be 0 and G(G - H) > 0 --> In this case is G > H? No
Not Sufficient

Hi, thank you for your explanation. Here, the question asks whether G>H
In statement 2, the inequality clearly satisfies this condition. l am not clear why its still insufficient.
Help?
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Marshall & McDonough Moderator
Joined: 13 Apr 2015
Posts: 1683
Location: India

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27 May 2016, 05:27
1
Vyshak wrote:
St1: G - 5 > H - 5 --> Clearly sufficient to prove G > H

St2: G(G - H) > 0 --> G > 0 or G > H
If G > 0; H can be 0 and G(G - H) > 0 --> In this case is G > H? No
Not Sufficient

Hi, thank you for your explanation. Here, the question asks whether G>H
In statement 2, the inequality clearly satisfies this condition. l am not clear why its still insufficient.
Help?

Hi,

I am not able to understand my own explanation for the 2nd statement. I will edit my solution.

Please refer to the below explanation for the 2nd statement:

G^2 - GH > 0
G^2 is positive --> G can be negative or positive
Suppose the value of GH is negative --> If G is positive and H is negative then G > H
If G is negative and H is positive then G < H
Not Sufficient
Manager
Joined: 18 Jan 2010
Posts: 245

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27 May 2016, 05:44
1
stonecold wrote:
Is G>H ?
[A] G-5>H-5
G^2>GH

[b] Statement 1

G-5 > H -5
We can remove 5 from both sides.

G > H.

Statement 1 is sufficient

Statement 2

$$G^2$$>GH

G.G>G.H
G(G-H) > 0

Either G < 0 or G > H

Not sufficient

Intern
Joined: 07 Jun 2015
Posts: 10

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28 May 2016, 12:40
For statement 2,
G^2>GH

Since no information is given about G, we will consider two cases for G,
1.) When G is +ve, then (G^2)/G>(GH)/G --------> G>H

2.)When G is -ve, then (G^2)/(-G)<(GH)/(-G) ------------> G<H because, when an inequality is divided by a -ve number then sign of inequality changes.

Therefore, statement 2 is insufficient.

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Joined: 09 Sep 2013
Posts: 13421

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03 Sep 2018, 06:51
Hello from the GMAT Club BumpBot!

Thanks to another GMAT Club member, I have just discovered this valuable topic, yet it had no discussion for over a year. I am now bumping it up - doing my job. I think you may find it valuable (esp those replies with Kudos).

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Re: Is G>H ?   [#permalink] 03 Sep 2018, 06:51
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