**Quote:**

Consider this:

If \(s=0\) and \(t\neq{0}\) (\(s = st\)), then \(st\neq{t}\). Or if \(t=1\) and \(s\neq{1}\) (\(s = st\)), then \(st\neq{t}\). So, for these cases the answer to the question is NO.

If \(s=t=0\) (\(s = st\)), then \(st={t}\). Or if \(s=t=1\) (\(s = st\)), then \(st={t}\). So, for these cases the answer to the question is YES.

Does this make sense?

Yes Bunuel, when we consider values it makes sense.

But I am unable to get to this directly with out plugging values.

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