Last visit was: 18 Nov 2025, 23:35 It is currently 18 Nov 2025, 23:35
Close
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Close
Request Expert Reply
Confirm Cancel
User avatar
DenisSh
Joined: 13 Mar 2009
Last visit: 17 Aug 2012
Posts: 116
Own Kudos:
1,815
 [79]
Given Kudos: 60
Posts: 116
Kudos: 1,815
 [79]
7
Kudos
Add Kudos
72
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Most Helpful Reply
User avatar
Bunuel
User avatar
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Last visit: 18 Nov 2025
Posts: 105,367
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 99,977
Products:
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 105,367
Kudos: 778,139
 [16]
11
Kudos
Add Kudos
4
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
Bunuel
User avatar
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Last visit: 18 Nov 2025
Posts: 105,367
Own Kudos:
778,139
 [7]
Given Kudos: 99,977
Products:
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 105,367
Kudos: 778,139
 [7]
6
Kudos
Add Kudos
1
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
General Discussion
avatar
naish
Joined: 12 Jul 2010
Last visit: 16 Mar 2011
Posts: 16
Own Kudos:
27
 [3]
Given Kudos: 24
Status:fighting hard..
Concentration: general
Schools:ISB, Hass, Ross, NYU Stern
Posts: 16
Kudos: 27
 [3]
3
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
on rearranging the terms we get,
\(((x^2 + 9)/3x) - 2 > 0\)
\((x^2 + 9 -6x)/3x > 0\)
\(((x - 3)^2)/3x > 0\)

\((x-3)^2\) is positive.
amongst options (1) and (2), we can draw a clear cut conclusion only using (2).

Therefore ans is B.
:)
User avatar
DenisSh
Joined: 13 Mar 2009
Last visit: 17 Aug 2012
Posts: 116
Own Kudos:
1,815
 [3]
Given Kudos: 60
Posts: 116
Kudos: 1,815
 [3]
3
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
naish

\((x-3)^2\) is positive.
amongst options (1) and (2), we can draw a clear cut conclusion only using (2).

Therefore ans is B.
:)

No. As I think, you should get 2 inequalities:
1) \((x-3)^2>0\) and 2) \((x-3)^2<0\) (it depends on what the sign does \(x\) have).

After that, (2) indicates that \(x\) has a positive sign. Thus, we should consider only 1) inequality.
There is one option when \((x-3)^2=0\) - if \(x=3\).

Since (1) indicates that \(x \neq 3\), the OA is (C).

Correct me if I'm wrong.
User avatar
gurpreetsingh
Joined: 12 Oct 2009
Last visit: 15 Jun 2019
Posts: 2,272
Own Kudos:
3,915
 [2]
Given Kudos: 235
Status:<strong>Nothing comes easy: neither do I want.</strong>
Location: Malaysia
Concentration: Technology, Entrepreneurship
Schools: ISB '15 (M)
GMAT 1: 670 Q49 V31
GMAT 2: 710 Q50 V35
Products:
Schools: ISB '15 (M)
GMAT 2: 710 Q50 V35
Posts: 2,272
Kudos: 3,915
 [2]
2
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
naish
on rearranging the terms we get,
\(((x^2 + 9)/3x) - 2 > 0\)
\((x^2 + 9 -6x)/3x > 0\)
\(((x - 3)^2)/3x > 0\)

\((x-3)^2\) is positive.
amongst options (1) and (2), we can draw a clear cut conclusion only using (2).

Therefore ans is B.
:)

Ans is C,
For all the +ve values of x the answer to the question is yes, except for x=3 for which its value is 0 thus the answer is no.

1st statement eliminates the x=3 option thus it is required.
User avatar
Bunuel
User avatar
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Last visit: 18 Nov 2025
Posts: 105,367
Own Kudos:
778,139
 [5]
Given Kudos: 99,977
Products:
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 105,367
Kudos: 778,139
 [5]
4
Kudos
Add Kudos
1
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
DenisSh
Is \(\frac{x}{3} + \frac{3}{x} > 2\)?

(1) \(x < 3\)

(2) \(x > 1\)

Please outline your approach! :)

gurpreetsingh's solution is correct.

Is \(\frac{x}{3}+\frac{3}{x}>2\)? --> is \(\frac{(x-3)^2}{x}>0\)? Now, nominator is non-negative, thus the fraction to be positive nominator must not be zero (thus it'll be positive) and denominator mut be positive --> \(x\neq{3}\) and \(x>0\).

Statement (1) satisfies the first requirement and statement (2) satisfies the second requirement, so taken together they are sufficient.

Answer: C.
User avatar
DenisSh
Joined: 13 Mar 2009
Last visit: 17 Aug 2012
Posts: 116
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 60
Posts: 116
Kudos: 1,815
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Bunuel

gurpreetsingh's solution is correct.

Is \(\frac{x}{3}+\frac{3}{x}>2\)? --> is \(\frac{(x-3)^2}{x}>0\)?
Answer: C.

How did you get \(\frac{(x-3)^2}{x}>0\)?

Step 1:
\(\frac{x}{3}+\frac{3}{x}>2\)?
Step 2 (multiply by 3x):
\(x^2+9>6x\)
Step 3 (move 6x to the left side):
\(x^2-6x+9>0\)
Step 4 (convert to the compact form):
\((x-3)^2>0\)

Please explain...
User avatar
gurpreetsingh
Joined: 12 Oct 2009
Last visit: 15 Jun 2019
Posts: 2,272
Own Kudos:
3,915
 [1]
Given Kudos: 235
Status:<strong>Nothing comes easy: neither do I want.</strong>
Location: Malaysia
Concentration: Technology, Entrepreneurship
Schools: ISB '15 (M)
GMAT 1: 670 Q49 V31
GMAT 2: 710 Q50 V35
Products:
Schools: ISB '15 (M)
GMAT 2: 710 Q50 V35
Posts: 2,272
Kudos: 3,915
 [1]
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Another way :

Arithmatic mean >= geometric mean ( the numbers should be +ve )

=> \(\frac{x}{3} + \frac{3}{x} >=2\) ; equality holds when x/3 = 3/x => \(x^2 = 9\) => x = + 3

1st statement removes the possibility of x=3 but we do not know whether x>0 or not.

2nd statement removes the possibility of x<0 but x can be equal to 3

Thus both statements taken together states x is not equal to 3 and x is +ve

Thus C is the answer.
avatar
ulm
Joined: 03 Jun 2010
Last visit: 20 Aug 2019
Posts: 95
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 40
Location: United States (MI)
Concentration: Marketing, General Management
WE:Business Development (Consumer Packaged Goods)
Products:
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
(x-3)^2/x >0

(x-3)^2 is always >0, therefore we just need x to be >0.
The correct answer is (0;3) and (3;+inf)
It's (B), because if we consider (C), we will loose answers. Try 10, 11, 12 and so on. It fits.
User avatar
Bunuel
User avatar
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Last visit: 18 Nov 2025
Posts: 105,367
Own Kudos:
778,139
 [2]
Given Kudos: 99,977
Products:
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 105,367
Kudos: 778,139
 [2]
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
1
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
ulm
(x-3)^2/x >0

(x-3)^2 is always >0, therefore we just need x to be >0.
The correct answer is (0;3) and (3;+inf)
It's (B), because if we consider (C), we will loose answers. Try 10, 11, 12 and so on. It fits.

Generally, unknown (or expression with unknown) in even power is NOT always positive, it's non-negative. Not knowing this is the cause of many mistakes on GMAT.

So, \((x-3)^2\geq{0}\), because if \(x=3\), then \((x-3)^2=0\) and \(\frac{(x-3)^2}{x}\) also equals to zero (and not more than zero). We need statement (1) to exclude the possibility of \(x\) being 3 by saying that \(x<3\). That's why the answer to this question is C, not B.

Hope it's clear.
User avatar
Michmax3
Joined: 14 Oct 2009
Last visit: 30 Jun 2012
Posts: 353
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 53
Status:Current Student
Concentration: CPG Marketing
Schools:Chicago Booth 2013, Ross, Duke , Kellogg , Stanford, Haas
GPA: 3.8
Products:
Posts: 353
Kudos: 265
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Not sure if I took the long way to do this problem and I just got lucky that it worked out quickly for me, but I took a different approach and started plugging in numbers in case this explanation helps anyone...

1) x<3, so I plugged in 2 for x and got 5/6 which is less than 2; I then plugged in 1 for x trying to find an instance where the opposite was true and got 10/3, which is greater than 2, so statement 1 is insufficient

2) x>1; I already had the result when 2 is plugged in which is 5/6 and less than 2; so I tried plugging in 6, since I knew this would give me a higher result and got 2.5 which is greater than 2, so statement 2 insufficient

When combined, you know x has to be 2 which results in 5/6 and is less than 2, so together they are sufficient. C
User avatar
Bunuel
User avatar
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Last visit: 18 Nov 2025
Posts: 105,367
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 99,977
Products:
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 105,367
Kudos: 778,139
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Michmax3
Not sure if I took the long way to do this problem and I just got lucky that it worked out quickly for me, but I took a different approach and started plugging in numbers in case this explanation helps anyone...

1) x<3, so I plugged in 2 for x and got 5/6 which is less than 2; I then plugged in 1 for x trying to find an instance where the opposite was true and got 10/3, which is greater than 2, so statement 1 is insufficient

2) x>1; I already had the result when 2 is plugged in which is 5/6 and less than 2; so I tried plugging in 6, since I knew this would give me a higher result and got 2.5 which is greater than 2, so statement 2 insufficient

When combined, you know x has to be 2 which results in 5/6 and is less than 2, so together they are sufficient. C

Unfortunately your approach is not correct.

First of all if \(x=2\)--> \(\frac{x}{3} + \frac{3}{x}=\frac{13}{6} > 2\), so you made an error in calculations (\(\frac{2}{3} + \frac{3}{2}=\frac{13}{6}\neq{\frac{5}{6}}\)). Again \(\frac{x}{3} + \frac{3}{x}>2\) is true for ANY value of \(x\) but 3, for which \(\frac{x}{3} + \frac{3}{x}=2\).

Next: you say that "When combined, you know x has to be 2". Not so, as we are not told that \(x\) is an integer, hence \(x<3\) and \(x>1\) does not mean that \(x=2\), it can be 2.5 or 1.777, basically ANY number from 1 to 3, not inclusive.

Hope it's clear.
User avatar
hirendhanak
User avatar
Retired Moderator
Joined: 03 Aug 2010
Last visit: 13 Oct 2012
Posts: 144
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 41
Posts: 144
Kudos: 112
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Bunuel
DenisSh
Bunuel

gurpreetsingh's solution is correct.

Is \(\frac{x}{3}+\frac{3}{x}>2\)? --> is \(\frac{(x-3)^2}{x}>0\)?
Answer: C.

How did you get \(\frac{(x-3)^2}{x}>0\)?

Step 1:
\(\frac{x}{3}+\frac{3}{x}>2\)?
Step 2 (multiply by 3x):
\(x^2+9>6x\)
Step 3 (move 6x to the left side):
\(x^2-6x+9>0\)
Step 4 (convert to the compact form):
\((x-3)^2>0\)

Please explain...

This is the most common error when solve inequalities. I keep writing this over and over again:

Never multiply or reduce inequality by an unknown (a variable) unless you are sure of its sign since you do not know whether you must flip the sign of the inequality.

So you CAN NOT multiply \(\frac{x}{3}+\frac{3}{x}>2\) by \(3x\) since you don't know the sign of \(x\).

Wheat you CAN DO is: \(\frac{x}{3}+\frac{3}{x}>2\) --> \(\frac{x}{3}+\frac{3}{x}-2>\) --> common denominator is \(3x\) --> \(\frac{x^2+9-6x}{3x}>0\) --> multiply be 3 --> \(\frac{x^2+9-6x}{x}>0\) --> \(\frac{(x-3)^2}{x}>0\).

Hope it helps.


thanks for your explanation... can you explain the below mentioned rule with an example and its reasoning.

Never multiply or reduce inequality by an unknown (a variable) unless you are sure of its sign since you do not know whether you must flip the sign of the inequalit
User avatar
shrouded1
User avatar
Retired Moderator
Joined: 02 Sep 2010
Last visit: 29 Apr 2018
Posts: 609
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 25
Location: London
Products:
Posts: 609
Kudos: 3,191
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
hirendhanak

thanks for your explanation... can you explain the below mentioned rule with an example and its reasoning.

Never multiply or reduce inequality by an unknown (a variable) unless you are sure of its sign since you do not know whether you must flip the sign of the inequalit

Consider the inequality \(\frac{x^2-12}{x}>-1\)

Lets say I multiply both sides by 7x without considering the signs of the variable, what happens ?

\(x^2-12>-x\)
\(x^2+x-12>0\)
\((x+4)(x-3)>0\)

Which is true whenever x>3 (both terms positive) or when x<-4 (both terms negative)

But since we haven't kept the Sign of x in mind when we multiplied in step 1, the solution is wrong.

For eg. Take x=-1 which according to us is not a solution. It is easy to see ((-1)^2-12)/(-1)=11>-1. So it should be a solution
Similarly take x=-6 which according to us is a solution, but ((-6)^2-12)/-6=-4<-1. So it should not be a solution
User avatar
KarishmaB
Joined: 16 Oct 2010
Last visit: 18 Nov 2025
Posts: 16,267
Own Kudos:
76,984
 [2]
Given Kudos: 482
Location: Pune, India
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 16,267
Kudos: 76,984
 [2]
2
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Baten80
is (x/3+3/x) > 2?
(1) x < 3
(2) x > 1

This ds has been discussed thoroughly at https://gmatclub.com/forum/tricky-inequality-problem-97331.html. It inequality simplified there as [(x - 3)^2]/3 > 0.
if i do not simplify then i can i solved it as:
(1) if x = 2 then the (x/3+3/x) > 2 but if x = negative the (x/3+3/x) > 2 is not true. so Insufficient.
(2) if x = 2 then (x/3+3/x) > 2 but if x = 1 then (x/3+3/x) > 2 is true. so insufficient.

for C x =2 and (x/3+3/x) > 2.

so why i will simplify as i am getting direct answer?

I would work with the inequality as is. It is symmetrical in the given form. Symmetry makes me comfortable because it makes it easy to see patterns.
This question is a play on a standard concept that if x is a positive integer, minimum value of x + 1/x is 2. (which is actually derived from another concept: If the product of two positive integers is a constant (x*1/x = 1), their sum is least when they are equal (so x + 1/x is least when x = 1/x i.e. x = 1)
Similarly,
x/2 + 2/x has a minimum value of 2 when x = 2.
x/3 + 3/x has a minimum value of 2 when x = 3.
and so on...

In this question they don't say that x is a positive integer.
So when x is negative, (x/3 + 3/x) is negative.
When 0<x<=1, infinity > (x/3 + 3/x) >= 10/3
When 1<x<3, 10/3 > (x/3 + 3/x) > 2
When x >= 3, (x/3 + 3/x) >= 2

Notice that (x/3 + 3/x) does not take values between 0 and 2.
User avatar
EvaJager
Joined: 22 Mar 2011
Last visit: 31 Aug 2016
Posts: 514
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 43
WE:Science (Education)
Posts: 514
Kudos: 2,325
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
shrouded1
hirendhanak

thanks for your explanation... can you explain the below mentioned rule with an example and its reasoning.

Never multiply or reduce inequality by an unknown (a variable) unless you are sure of its sign since you do not know whether you must flip the sign of the inequalit

Consider the inequality \(\frac{x^2-12}{x}>-1\)

Lets say I multiply both sides by 7x without considering the signs of the variable, what happens ?

\(x^2-12>-x\)
\(x^2+x-12>0\)
\((x+4)(x-3)>0\)

Which is true whenever x>3 (both terms positive) or when x<-4 (both terms negative)

But since we haven't kept the Sign of x in mind when we multiplied in step 1, the solution is wrong.

For eg. Take x=-1 which according to us is not a solution. It is easy to see ((-1)^2-12)/(-1)=11>-1. So it should be a solution
Similarly take x=-6 which according to us is a solution, but ((-6)^2-12)/-6=-4<-1. So it should not be a solution

Very well illustrated why we shouldn't multiply an inequality with an expression of unknown sign.
Just a few more things:

The given inequality \(\frac{x^2-12}{x}>-1\) is equivalent to \(\frac{x^2+x-12}{x}>0\). The sign of the ratio of two numbers is the same as the sign of their product. So, the previous inequality is equivalent to \(x(x^2+x-12)>0\), which in fact can be obtained from the original inequality by multiplying by \(x^2\), which we know for sure that it is positive, because x being in the denominator, \(x\neq0.\)

When given \(A/B>0,\) it means:
1) A and B have the same sign (either both positive or both negative)
2) Neither A nor B can be 0, A is in the numerator and the fraction is greater than 0, B is in the denominator.
It is obvious that multiplying by B the given inequality leads to \(A>0\), incorrect.
\(A/B>0\) is equivalent to \(AB>0,\, B\neq0.\)

When given \(A/B\geq0,\) it means:
1) A and B have the same sign (either both positive or both negative). A can be 0.
2) B cannot be 0, being in the denominator.
It is obvious that multiplying by B the given inequality leads to \(A\geq0\), incorrect.
\(A/B\geq0\) is equivalent to \(AB\geq0,\, B\neq0.\)


So, when we have to compare a fraction to 0, we can just compare the product of all the factors involved to 0. We should check carefully for values of the unknown if equality to 0 is allowed and we should not forget the values for which the denominator becomes 0.
User avatar
bumpbot
User avatar
Non-Human User
Joined: 09 Sep 2013
Last visit: 04 Jan 2021
Posts: 38,583
Own Kudos:
Posts: 38,583
Kudos: 1,079
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Hello from the GMAT Club BumpBot!

Thanks to another GMAT Club member, I have just discovered this valuable topic, yet it had no discussion for over a year. I am now bumping it up - doing my job. I think you may find it valuable (esp those replies with Kudos).

Want to see all other topics I dig out? Follow me (click follow button on profile). You will receive a summary of all topics I bump in your profile area as well as via email.
Moderators:
Math Expert
105368 posts
496 posts