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Linguist: Plosives and fricatives are two classes of consonants.

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Dereno

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26 Jan 2026, 04:05

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parkhydel

Linguist: Plosives and fricatives are two classes of consonants. A "voicing contrast" is a distinction between two consonants that are identical except that one is voiced and the other is unvoiced. In language family X, languages with voicing contrasts in their fricatives always have voicing contrasts in their plosives. This means that in that family, any given language has a voicing contrast in its fricatives __________ it has a voicing contrast in its plosives. In other words, a given language in that family lacks any voicing contrasts in its plosives __________ it lacks any such contrasts in its fricatives.

Select for First blank the word or phrase that most logically completes the statement with the first blank. And select for Second blank the word or phrase that most logically completes the statement with the second blank. Make only two selections, one in each column.

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Ignoring the initial distractions, and moving to the core region.

“In language family X, languages with voicing contrasts in their fricatives always have voicing contrasts in their plosives”.

Let’s take the fricatives and plosives as f and p respectively.

IF vc(f) is yes, then vc(p) is a yes.

what, vc(f) is NOT YES - No, then the outcome of vc(p) is 2 ways : can be yes. OR can be no.

Converting the previous inference to a table.

If vc(f) ✅ ———> then vc(p) is ✅.

vc(f) ❌ —————> vc(p) is ✅ OR

vc(f) ❌—————> vc(p) is ❌.

Now to the question.

any given language has a voicing contrast in its fricatives __________ it has a voicing contrast in its plosives.

vc(f) is ✅ when vc(p) is also ✅. So, ONLY IF

Now, to the next blank space,

In other words, a given language in that family lacks any voicing contrasts in its plosives __________ it lacks any such contrasts in its fricatives.

vc(p) ❌ occurs ONLY IF vc(f) ❌.

ledzep10

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25 Feb 2026, 00:51

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Hi Chetan, I had a doubt regarding this. For the last logical statement where we have if A then B = Only if 'Not A' then 'Not B', if we were to take A to be it rains and B to be the ground is wet, then how is if it rains the ground is wet = only if it doesn't rain then the ground is not wet? Because the ground can be wet by some other factor right?

But I understand that by the logical operators if A then B = If not B then not A = Only if not A then not B the flow works.

chetan2u

It is all about rearranging the statement - languages with voicing contrasts in their fricatives always have voicing contrasts in their plosives.

This means voicing contrast in fricatives means voicing contrasts in their plosives. It would happen when voicing contrasts in their fricatives(A) is a part of voicing contrasts in their plosives.(B) .

In terms of If then sentence: it means If A then B.

(1) The other way to write this is A only if B, and this is exactly what blank 1 does.
any given language has a voicing contrast in its fricatives(A) __________ it has a voicing contrast in its plosive(B)
(2) Another way to write If A then B is 'If not B, then not A'. This further becomes not B only if not A.
This is exactly the way blank 2 is written
In other words, a given language in that family lacks any voicing contrasts in its plosives(not B) __________ it lacks any such contrasts in its fricatives(not A).

Hoehenheim, Hope it helps