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Bunuel
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I think this is a high-quality question and I agree with explanation. This is surely a 600 Lv question
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I think this is a high-quality question and I agree with explanation.
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I have edited the question and the solution by adding more details to enhance its clarity. I hope it is now easier to understand.
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I think this is a high-quality question and I agree with explanation.
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I think this is a high-quality question and I agree with explanation.
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I like the solution - it’s helpful.
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This is a great question that’s helpful for learning.
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I did not quite understand the solution. it would be better if you explain in bit detail about the formula uses and increase steps
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adityacantstudy
I did not quite understand the solution. it would be better if you explain in bit detail about the formula uses and increase steps
We are given
\(a_1 = 1\)
\(a_2 = -1\)
\(a_{n+1} = a_n + 2a_{n-1}\)

Now build the next few terms using the formula:
\(a_3 = a_2 + 2a_1 = -1 + 2(1) = 1\)
\(a_4 = a_3 + 2a_2 = 1 + 2(-1) = -1\)
\(a_5 = a_4 + 2a_3 = -1 + 2(1) = 1\)
\(a_6 = a_5 + 2a_4 = 1 + 2(-1) = -1\)

So the pattern is
\(1, -1, 1, -1, 1, -1, ...\)

You can also see why this repeats: whenever two consecutive terms are
\(a_{n-1} = 1\) and \(a_n = -1\),

then
\(a_{n+1} = a_n + 2a_{n-1} = -1 + 2(1) = 1\).

So the next term becomes 1, and the alternation continues.

Now for the sum:

Pair them:
\((a_1 + a_2) + (a_3 + a_4) + ... + (a_{999} + a_{1000}) + a_{1001}\)

Each pair is
\(1 + (-1) = 0\)

So everything up to \(a_{1000}\) cancels to 0, and we are left with
\(a_{1001} = 1\)

Therefore,
\(a_1 + a_2 + ... + a_{1001} = 1\)

Answer: D
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