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Bunuel
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lnyngayan

Bunuel
Official Solution:

If \(x\) non-zero integer, how many values of \(x\) are there such that \((\frac{x}{2})^x = 1\)?

A. None
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. Infinitely many


Since \(x \neq 0\), for \((\frac{x}{2})^x = 1\) to hold true, the base (\(\frac{x}{2}\)) must be 1, and the exponent (\(x\)) can be any number (\(1^{anything} = 1\)) or the base (\(\frac{x}{2}\)) must be -1 and the exponent (\(x\)) must be even (\((-1)^{even} = 1\)).

If \(\frac{x}{2} = 1\), then \(x = 2\).

If \(\frac{x}{2} = -1\), then \(x = -2\), which is even.

Therefore, \(x\) could be 2 or -2.


Answer: C

For questions like these, shall we assume it as a COULD BE instead of MUST BE?
­
Your question doesn’t quite apply to this problem. We’re given an equation with an unknown x and are asked to find how many distinct values of x satisfy it. The solution shows the specific values that make the equation true, so it’s not a matter of "could be" or "must be true" but rather finding the exact number of valid solutions.
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Why is 0 not a valid answer to this problem?
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Why is 0 not a valid answer to this problem?
If \(x\) non-zero integer, how many values of \(x\) are there such that \((\frac{x}{2})^x = 1\)?

Plus, 0 does not satisfy given equation. The value of 0^0 is disputed and not tested on the GMAT.
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