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Vercules
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05 May 2013, 10:58
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Noted for his consummate use of tragedy, many of Shakespeare’s plays have become classics due to the author slowly revealing at the end of each play a dramatic twist of fate.
(A) Noted for his consummate use of tragedy, many of Shakespeare’s plays have become classics due to the author slowly revealing at the end of each piece a tragic twist of fate.
(B) Noted for using tragedy in a consummate way, many of Shakespeare’s plays have become classics because of the author slowly revealing a tragic twist of fate at the end of each piece.
(C) Many of Shakespeare’s plays have become classics because of how he notably and consummately uses tragedy, evident in the slow revelation of a tragic twist of fate at the end of each piece.
(D) Many of Shakespeare’s plays have become classics because of the author's noted and consummate use of tragedy, evidenced in the slow revelation of a tragic twist of fate at the end of each piece.
(E) Many of Shakespeare’s plays have become classics because he slowly revealed a tragic twist of fate at the end of each piece, demonstrating his noted and consummate use of tragedy.
Revised/edited Version of this question is HERE (V04-03).
TOPIC IS LOCKED AND ARCHIVED.
(A) Noted for his consummate use of tragedy, many of Shakespeare’s plays have become classics due to the author slowly revealing at the end of each piece a tragic twist of fate.
(B) Noted for using tragedy in a consummate way, many of Shakespeare’s plays have become classics because of the author slowly revealing a tragic twist of fate at the end of each piece.
(C) Many of Shakespeare’s plays have become classics because of how he notably and consummately uses tragedy, evident in the slow revelation of a tragic twist of fate at the end of each piece.
(D) Many of Shakespeare’s plays have become classics because of the author's noted and consummate use of tragedy, evidenced in the slow revelation of a tragic twist of fate at the end of each piece.
(E) Many of Shakespeare’s plays have become classics because he slowly revealed a tragic twist of fate at the end of each piece, demonstrating his noted and consummate use of tragedy.
Revised/edited Version of this question is HERE (V04-03).
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06 May 2013, 10:22
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Vercules
Noted for his consummate use of tragedy, many of Shakespeare’s plays have become classics due to the author slowly revealing at the end of each play a dramatic twist of fate.
Who uses tragedy? Shakespeare or his plays? To me more logic makes Shakespeare using tragedy, although not necessarily. But in business environment personifyig a play is worse than the other choice.Quote:
A) Noted for his consummate use of tragedy, many of Shakespeare’s plays have become classics due to the author slowly revealing at the end of each piece a tragic twist of fate.
Opening participial modifier must modify the noun after the comma. If so, plays cannot use tragedy.Quote:
B) Noted for using tragedy in a consummate way, many of Shakespeare’s plays have become classics because of the author slowly revealing a tragic twist of fate at the end of each piece.
As A. Besides, the noun phrase after the "because of" is grammatically correct, but very verbose.Quote:
C) Many of Shakespeare’s plays have become classics because of how he notably and consummately uses tragedy, evident in the slow revelation of a tragic twist of fate at the end of each piece.
A clause cannot follow "because of".Quote:
D) Many of Shakespeare’s plays have become classics because of the author's noted and consummate use of tragedy, evidenced in the slow revelation of a tragic twist of fate at the end of each piece.
It's clear that the author used the tragedy. The "because of" is properly followed by noun phrase. "evidenced in the slow revelation" is somehow cumbersome but good enough compared to other ACs. Quote:
E) Many of Shakespeare’s plays have become classics because he slowly revealed a tragic twist of fate at the end of each piece, demonstrating his noted and consummate use of tragedy.
Not sure if subject pronouns can refer to genitive. Experts please explain. If yes, I'd choose this one, if not: D.
Vercules
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GMAT 1: 660 Q48 V34
GMAT 2: 750 Q49 V42
Expert reply
Schools: Kenan-Flagler '15 (A) McCombs '15 (I) Tepper '15 (M) Kellogg '15 (I) HBS '15 (D) Wharton '15 (D) Stern '15 (WL) Simon '15 (A)
GMAT 2: 750 Q49 V42
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06 May 2013, 14:20
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HumptyDumpty
Vercules
Noted for his consummate use of tragedy, many of Shakespeare’s plays have become classics due to the author slowly revealing at the end of each play a dramatic twist of fate.
Who uses tragedy? Shakespeare or his plays? To me more logic makes Shakespeare using tragedy, although not necessarily. But in business environment personifyig a play is worse than the other choice.Quote:
A) Noted for his consummate use of tragedy, many of Shakespeare’s plays have become classics due to the author slowly revealing at the end of each piece a tragic twist of fate.
Opening participial modifier must modify the noun after the comma. If so, plays cannot use tragedy.Quote:
B) Noted for using tragedy in a consummate way, many of Shakespeare’s plays have become classics because of the author slowly revealing a tragic twist of fate at the end of each piece.
As A. Besides, the noun phrase after the "because of" is grammatically correct, but very verbose.Quote:
C) Many of Shakespeare’s plays have become classics because of how he notably and consummately uses tragedy, evident in the slow revelation of a tragic twist of fate at the end of each piece.
A clause cannot follow "because of".Quote:
D) Many of Shakespeare’s plays have become classics because of the author's noted and consummate use of tragedy, evidenced in the slow revelation of a tragic twist of fate at the end of each piece.
It's clear that the author used the tragedy. The "because of" is properly followed by noun phrase. "evidenced in the slow revelation" is somehow cumbersome but good enough compared to other ACs. Quote:
E) Many of Shakespeare’s plays have become classics because he slowly revealed a tragic twist of fate at the end of each piece, demonstrating his noted and consummate use of tragedy.
Not sure if subject pronouns can refer to genitive. Experts please explain. If yes, I'd choose this one, if not: D.Hi Humpty,
The pronoun 'he' can not refer to the 'Shakespeare's plays', this makes (E) incorrect. The pronoun referring to a possessive noun has to be possessive if we want to refer to the noun that is possessing something. (D) correctly uses 'author's' in the possessive form to refer to something that Shakespeare possessed.
Hope this helps,
Vercules
