Bunuel
People with a certain medical condition tend to have lower levels of low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C) before they are diagnosed with this condition than do people without this condition. This association is equally strong whether or not the individuals have taken medications to lower their LDL-C. Therefore, having taken such medications does not make it more likely that people with lower LDL-C will develop the condition in question.
The doctor’s argument is most vulnerable to criticism on which of the following grounds?
A. It presumes that if a medication to lower LDL-C does not strengthen the association between lower LDL-C and a medical condition, the medication does not help cause the condition.
B. It confuses a claim about a medication’s effects with a claim about the effects of a condition the medication is intended to treat.
C. It takes for granted that a factor that is not known to cause a given effect cannot cause another effect associated with the first.
D. It overlooks the possibility that even if one factor does not cause another, they may be strongly associated.
E. It takes for granted that if two factors are associated with each other whenever a third factor is absent, the association can also hold even when that third factor is shown to be present.
Attachment:
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Certainly a challenging question, especially under time pressure.
Premises:People with a certain medical condition (let's call it CON) tend to have lower levels of LDL-C before they are diagnosed with this condition than do people without this condition. People who have CON, have lower levels of LDL-C before being diagnosed - may be after diagnosis, they are given medicines to increase LDL-C that is why the argument specifies 'before being diagnosed'. Say 60% people with lower LDL-C develop CON.
This association is equally strong whether or not the individuals have taken medications to lower their LDL-C. Think of the correlation between CON and low LDL-C.
We are given that whether low LDL-C was caused by taking some medicines (may be to counter high LDL-C) or naturally, the correlation between CON and low LDL-C is the same. We don't see that people who take medicine to lower LDL-C get CON more often or people. It remains 60% only. That low LDL-C, either natural or medicine induced, has same level of correlation with CON.
Conclusion:Having taken such medications does not make it more likely that people with lower LDL-C will develop the condition in question.
Author concludes that medicine to lower LDL-C does not make it more likely to develop the condition. This is flawed, right? After all, a person's chance of getting CON may be 1% but after taking the medicine to lower LDL-C, it may have increased to 60% now.
The doctor’s argument is most vulnerable to criticism on which of the following grounds?
A. It presumes that if a medication to lower LDL-C does not strengthen the association between lower LDL-C and a medical condition, the medication does not help cause the condition.
Correct. It does presume that just because the chance of getting CON with medicine induced low LDL-C is still 60%, the medicine doesn't cause CON. But the previous probability of getting CON for the person could have been much lower. The medicine could have been the cause.
All other options are simply words from the argument put together in some order to confuse us.
B. It confuses a claim about a medication’s effects with a claim about the effects of a condition the medication is intended to treat.Most likely the popular incorrect answer.
a claim about the effects of a condition the medication is intended to treat - the claim is that LDL-C causes CON.
The author does not assume that the medicine causes CON. Contrary in fact.
C. It takes for granted that a factor that is not known to cause a given effect cannot cause another effect associated with the first.We don't have any 'a factor that is not known to cause a given effect.' What factor is not known to cause which effect?
D. It overlooks the possibility that even if one factor does not cause another, they may be strongly associated.He only claims that one factor does not cause the other. He does not claim that 'hence they are not strongly associated.'
E. It takes for granted that if two factors are associated with each other whenever a third factor is absent, the association can also hold even when that third factor is shown to be present.The premises tell us that that the association is the same whether the third factor (medicine) is present or not. The author's conclusion has no such flaw.
Answer (A)
Here is a discussion on another flaw in logic question: https://youtu.be/Mk_-ONJKmz4